0 n 0^n in the digits of Pi

Consider the following function:

f ( n ) = { 1 0 n occurs in the decimal representation of π 0 else \qquad f(n) = \begin{cases} 1 & 0^n \text{ occurs in the decimal representation of } \pi \\ 0 & \text{else}\end{cases}

Is f f computable?

  • 0 n 0^n refers to 00000 0 n times \underbrace{00000 \ldots 0}_{n\, \text{times}}
Yes We do not know yet No

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1 solution

Ivan Koswara
Nov 9, 2016

A very important result that will be used in this solution twice is the following: if we have a number of propositions A 1 , A 2 , A 3 , A_1, A_2, A_3, \ldots such that at least one of them is correct (that is, A 1 A 2 A 3 A_1 \vee A_2 \vee A_3 \vee \ldots is true), and each of these propositions implies the same thing (that is, A i B A_i \rightarrow B for all i i ), then the latter thing is true ( B B is true). When there are two propositions, this is a special case of constructive dilemma . This is obvious when put this way, but its power is when we don't know which of the A i A_i should be true, but we can conclude B B is true regardless.

We claim f f is computable. To see this, note that there are only two cases: either 0 n 0^n (a run of n n consecutive 0's) exists in the decimal representation of π \pi for arbitrarily large n n , or there is a greatest integer m m such that 0 m 0^m exists in the decimal representation of π \pi (but 0 m + 1 0^{m+1} doesn't).

Case 1 : There are arbitrarily long runs of 0's.

Thus for any n n , f ( n ) = 1 f(n) = 1 . This function is clearly computable: the algorithm simply returns 1 and halts.

Case 2 : There is a longest run of 0's (and longer ones don't exist).

Suppose that the maximum length is m m . Then f f is also computable: if n m n \le m , then return 1, otherwise return 0. In either case, the function halts. Note that we don't know what m m is , but it doesn't matter . This uses the above result; A i A_i is the proposition "the longest run of 0's is of i i 0's", and B B is the proposition " f f is computable". Clearly one of the A i A_i 's is true (from the assumption of the case; if none is true, we have Case 1), and we have just shown A i B A_i \rightarrow B for all i i . Thus B B is true; f f is computable.

Now, those two cases are exhaustive, and so we can apply the result again. Either Case 1 or Case 2 is true, but in both cases, f f is computable. So the end result is f f is computable , even though we don't actually know which case is true.

In Case 2, I don't think that the A's imply B. Just because the longest run of 0's is m does not mean that B is computable, the only way B is computable is if we know what that m is. Knowing that m exists is not enough. So in other words, f is computable only if there is either no longest run of 0's or we can compute the longest run of 0's.

For now, I think the answer is we don't know. My take is that case 1 implies f is computable and case 2 implies f is not computable. The only way to know which case holds is if you can prove that Pi is normal. Since we do not yet know if Pi is normal, then we can not know which case holds and thus do not know if f is computable.

Daniel Branscombe - 3 years, 10 months ago

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