Hundredth Derivative of Sinc Function

Calculus Level 3

In mathematics, physics, and engineering, the cardinal sine function or sinc function , denoted by sinc x \def\sinc{\text{sinc }} \sinc x , is defined by sinc x = sin x x . \def\sinc{\text{sinc }} \sinc x=\frac{\sin x}{x}. The term "sinc" is a contraction of the function's full Latin name, the sinus cardinalis (cardinal sine). It was introduced by Phillip M. Woodward in his 1952 paper "Information Theory and Inverse Probability in Telecommunication" in which he said the function "occurs so often in Fourier analysis and its applications that it does seem to merit some notation of its own" and his 1953 book "Probability and Information Theory, with Applications to Radar".


Compute m + n m+n , where m m and n n are relatively prime , where

d 100 d x 100 ( sinc x ) x = 0 = m n . \def\sinc{\text{sinc }} \left.\frac{d^{100}}{dx^{100}}(\sinc x)\right|_{x=0}=\frac{m}{n}.


The answer is 102.

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4 solutions

Abhinav Raichur
Jul 3, 2014

this approach does not use the series expansion....

(NOTE: y n y^n represents 'n'th derivative of y)

-let y=sin(x)/x

then yx=sin(x)

after differentiating once we have

x y 1 { y }^{ 1 } +y=cos(x)

the next derivative (2nd)

x y 2 { y }^{ 2 } +2 y 1 { y }^{ 1 } = -sin(x)

and so on.......

we get the general form to be

x y n y^{n} +n y n 1 y^{n-1} =sin(x) * (where * n=4z and n,z belong to integers)

hence to find the 100th derivative at '0' we need to put n=101 giving us

0 y 101 y^{101} + 101 y 100 y^{100} =cos(0)

[cos(0) because 100 is of the form '4z' and 101 th is the next derivative]

finally 101 y 100 y^{100} =1

and the hundredth derivative is 1 / 101 1/101

Truly cool, good job !

Aditya Raut - 6 years, 10 months ago

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@Aditya Raut ...... thanks bro :)

Abhinav Raichur - 6 years, 10 months ago

Why isn't this at the top? This is so beautiful!

Kenny Lau - 6 years, 11 months ago

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@Kenny Lau ......Thanks:-)

Abhinav Raichur - 6 years, 11 months ago

I learned from this. :)

Esrael Santillan - 6 years, 10 months ago

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.... thank you very much :)

Abhinav Raichur - 6 years, 10 months ago

Brilliant solution. I love it so much! A little note, it would be convenience if you denote the n n -derivative of y y as y ( n ) y^{(n)} . It's widely accepted & common notation too. ≥Ö‿Ö≤

Anastasiya Romanova - 6 years, 8 months ago

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@Valentina Moy thank you . i'll follow the notation :)

Abhinav Raichur - 6 years, 8 months ago

Nice and innovative! +1

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Thank you :) .... @Kartik Sharma

Abhinav Raichur - 5 years, 8 months ago

Excelent, I understood as well. Thanks!

Carlos David Nexans - 6 years, 10 months ago

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I thank everyone for your generous appreciation :) ......... It has certainly boosted my confidence.I will try further to write more simplified and distinctive solutions :)

Abhinav Raichur - 6 years, 10 months ago

This a wonderfully explained!!!

erica phillips - 3 years, 2 months ago
Shivang Jindal
Oct 26, 2014

This is how i solved this:

Note that, we can write,

sin ( x ) x = 0 1 cos ( u x ) d u \frac{\sin(x)}{x}= \int_{0}^{1}\cos(ux)du Now, using leibiniz rule repeatedly, gives , ( sin ( x ) x ) ( 100 ) = 0 1 u 100 cos ( u x ) d u \left( \frac{\sin(x)}{x} \right)^{(100)} = \int_{0}^{1} u^{100}\cos(ux) du Putting x = 0 x =0 , ( sin ( x ) x ) ( 100 ) = 0 1 u 100 d u = 1 101 \left(\frac{\sin(x)}{x} \right)^{(100)} = \int_{0}^{1} u^{100} du = \frac{1}{101} \Box

@shivang jindal awesome!!

Abhinav Raichur - 6 years, 7 months ago

Excellent Solution!

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 10 months ago
Hitalo Rodrigues
Jun 18, 2014

The series expansion of sinx is

s i n x \displaystyle sinx = n = 0 ( 1 ) n x 2 n + 1 ( 2 n + 1 ) ! \displaystyle \sum_{n = 0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^nx^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}

So s i n x x = n = 0 ( 1 ) n x 2 n ( 2 n + 1 ) ! \displaystyle \frac{sinx}{x} = \sum_{n = 0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^nx^{2n}}{(2n+1)!}

Then the first derivate is d d x ( s i n x x ) = n = 1 ( 1 ) n x 2 n 1 ( 2 n + 1 ) ( 2 n 1 ) ! \displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} (\frac{sinx}{x}) = \sum_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^nx^{2n-1}}{(2n+1)(2n-1)!}

So is easy to see that

d 100 d x 100 ( s i n x x ) = n = 50 ( 1 ) n x 2 n 100 ( 2 n + 1 ) ( 2 n 100 ) ! \displaystyle \frac{d^{100}}{dx^{100}} (\frac{sinx}{x}) = \sum_{n = 50}^\infty \frac{(-1)^nx^{2n-100}}{(2n+1)(2n-100)!}

Note that the sum starts with n = 50, this is because in each derivate a term (2n - a) appears and if n = a 2 \frac{a}{2} and n is a integer this term is zero. So the sum need to start with n > a 2 \frac{a}{2} and since the last a that appears is a = 99, n needs to be iqual to 50.

If x = 0 the only term that is not zero is for x 0 x^0 , i.e., when n = 50:

d 100 d x 100 ( s i n x x ) = 1 2 × 50 + 1 = 1 101 \displaystyle \frac{d^{100}}{dx^{100}}(\frac{sinx}{x}) = \frac{1}{2 \times 50 + 1} = \frac {1}{101}

Which means that m = 1, n = 101 and m + n = 102.

This is the manly way to solve this problem.

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 9 months ago
Abhishek Sinha
Jun 14, 2014

Use series expansion of sin x \sin x .

Short and sweet answer! very nice. (>‿◠)b

Anastasiya Romanova - 6 years, 12 months ago

please explain.

Ajitesh Mishra - 6 years, 12 months ago

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