sinc function , denoted by sinc x , is defined by sinc x = x sin x . The term "sinc" is a contraction of the function's full Latin name, the sinus cardinalis (cardinal sine). It was introduced by Phillip M. Woodward in his 1952 paper "Information Theory and Inverse Probability in Telecommunication" in which he said the function "occurs so often in Fourier analysis and its applications that it does seem to merit some notation of its own" and his 1953 book "Probability and Information Theory, with Applications to Radar".
In mathematics, physics, and engineering, the cardinal sine function orCompute m + n , where m and n are relatively prime , where
d x 1 0 0 d 1 0 0 ( sinc x ) ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ x = 0 = n m .
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Truly cool, good job !
Why isn't this at the top? This is so beautiful!
I learned from this. :)
Brilliant solution. I love it so much! A little note, it would be convenience if you denote the n -derivative of y as y ( n ) . It's widely accepted & common notation too. ≥Ö‿Ö≤
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@Valentina Moy thank you . i'll follow the notation :)
Nice and innovative! +1
Excelent, I understood as well. Thanks!
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I thank everyone for your generous appreciation :) ......... It has certainly boosted my confidence.I will try further to write more simplified and distinctive solutions :)
This a wonderfully explained!!!
This is how i solved this:
Note that, we can write,
x sin ( x ) = ∫ 0 1 cos ( u x ) d u Now, using leibiniz rule repeatedly, gives , ( x sin ( x ) ) ( 1 0 0 ) = ∫ 0 1 u 1 0 0 cos ( u x ) d u Putting x = 0 , ( x sin ( x ) ) ( 1 0 0 ) = ∫ 0 1 u 1 0 0 d u = 1 0 1 1 □
@shivang jindal awesome!!
Excellent Solution!
The series expansion of sinx is
s i n x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n + 1
So x s i n x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n
Then the first derivate is d x d ( x s i n x ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ( 2 n − 1 ) ! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n − 1
So is easy to see that
d x 1 0 0 d 1 0 0 ( x s i n x ) = n = 5 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ( 2 n − 1 0 0 ) ! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n − 1 0 0
Note that the sum starts with n = 50, this is because in each derivate a term (2n - a) appears and if n = 2 a and n is a integer this term is zero. So the sum need to start with n > 2 a and since the last a that appears is a = 99, n needs to be iqual to 50.
If x = 0 the only term that is not zero is for x 0 , i.e., when n = 50:
d x 1 0 0 d 1 0 0 ( x s i n x ) = 2 × 5 0 + 1 1 = 1 0 1 1
Which means that m = 1, n = 101 and m + n = 102.
This is the manly way to solve this problem.
Use series expansion of sin x .
Short and sweet answer! very nice. (>‿◠)b
please explain.
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this approach does not use the series expansion....
(NOTE: y n represents 'n'th derivative of y)
-let y=sin(x)/x
then yx=sin(x)
after differentiating once we have
x y 1 +y=cos(x)
the next derivative (2nd)
x y 2 +2 y 1 = -sin(x)
and so on.......
we get the general form to be
x y n +n y n − 1 =sin(x) * (where * n=4z and n,z belong to integers)
hence to find the 100th derivative at '0' we need to put n=101 giving us
0 y 1 0 1 + 101 y 1 0 0 =cos(0)
[cos(0) because 100 is of the form '4z' and 101 th is the next derivative]
finally 101 y 1 0 0 =1
and the hundredth derivative is 1 / 1 0 1