L m = n → ∞ lim n m 1 ∫ 1 e k = 1 ∏ m ln ( 1 + a k x n ) d x
Define a sequence { a i } i = 1 ∞ such that a i = e i . If L 7 can be represented as A + B e for integers A and B , then find the value of A + B .
Bonus: Generalize this problem for L m , where m ∈ Z + . What if a i = F i , where F i denotes the i th Fibonacci number?
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Nice problem! Did the same except that for solving the final integral I used the differentiation under integral sign for I ( k ) = ∫ 1 e x k d x , d k 7 d 7 ( I ( k ) ) ∣ k = 0
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Can you elaborate? I couldn't understand it.
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Well, we know that I ( k ) = ∫ 1 e x k d x = k + 1 e k + 1 − 1
d k 7 d 7 ( I ( k ) ) = ∫ 1 e l o g ( x ) 7 x k d x
d k 7 d 7 ( I ( k ) ) ∣ k = 0 = ∫ 1 e l o g ( x ) 7 d x
And our integral becomes d k 7 d 7 ( k + 1 e k + 1 − 1 ) ∣ k = 0
Now, don't ask how I solved that because that's computer's job and yeah this differentiation will just result in a thing like your relation, so, your method is the preferred one.
Relevant wiki: L'Hopital's Rule - Problem Solving
L m = n → ∞ lim n m 1 ∫ 1 e k = 1 ∏ m ln ( 1 + a k x n ) d x = ∫ 1 e k = 1 ∏ m ( n → ∞ lim n ln ( 1 + a k x n ) ) d x = ∫ 1 e k = 1 ∏ m ( n → ∞ lim 1 + a k x n a k ln x ⋅ x n ) d x = ∫ 1 e k = 1 ∏ m ( n → ∞ lim x n 1 + a k a k ln x ) d x = ∫ 1 e k = 1 ∏ 7 ln x d x = ∫ 1 e ln 7 x d x = ∫ 0 1 u 7 e u d u For x > 1 , a ∞ / ∞ case, L’H o ˆ pital’s rule applies. Differentiating up and down w.r.t n Dividing up and down by x n Putting m = 7 Let u = ln x ⟹ e u d u = d x By repeated integration by parts
= ( u 7 − 7 u 6 + 4 2 u 5 − 2 1 0 u 4 + 8 4 0 u 3 − 2 5 2 0 u 2 + 5 0 4 0 u − 5 0 4 0 ) e u ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 1 = 5 0 4 0 − 1 8 5 4 e
⟹ A + B = 5 0 4 0 − 1 8 5 4 = 3 1 8 6
Generalization:
We note that L m is independent of a i and it is given by:
L m = ( − 1 ) m + 1 m ! + e k = 0 ∑ m ( − 1 ) k ( m − k ) ! m !
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First note that for x ≥ 1 , we have:
x a k 1 / n ≤ ( 1 + a k x n ) 1 / n ≤ x ( 1 + a k ) 1 / n . . . ( 1 )
Since a k 1 / n and ( 1 + a k ) 1 / n each converge to 1 as n → ∞ , it follows from the above that ( 1 + a k x n ) 1 / n converges to x as n → ∞ . Thus,
n → ∞ lim n ln ( 1 + a k x n ) = n → ∞ lim ln ( 1 + a k x n ) 1 / n = ln ( x ) . . . ( 2 )
Taking logarithms across the last inequality in (1), we obtain;
n ln ( 1 + a k x n ) ≤ ln ( x ) + n ln ( 1 + a k ) ≤ ln ( x ) + ln ( 1 + a k )
from which it follows that:
k = 1 ∏ m n ln ( 1 + a k x n ) ≤ k = 1 ∏ m ( ln ( x ) + ln ( 1 + a k ) )
By Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem, we can bring the limits inside the integral ; then we apply (2) as follows:
L m = ∫ 1 e n → ∞ lim k = 1 ∏ m n ln ( 1 + a k x n ) d x = ∫ 1 e k = 1 ∏ m n → ∞ lim n ln ( 1 + a k x n ) d x = ∫ 1 e ( ln ( x ) ) m d x . . . ( 3 )
Next, we'll integrate it by parts to obtain at the recurrence relation:
L m = e − m L m − 1 . . . ( 4 )
Finally, we'll use induction on m to show that (with the appropriate initial condition) the solution to the recurrence in (4) is given by;
L m = ( − 1 ) m + 1 m ! + e k = 1 ∑ m ( − 1 ) k ( m − k ) ! m !
⟹ L m = ( − 1 ) m + 1 m ! + ( − 1 ) m e D m
where D m is the number of derangements of 1 , 2 , … , m .
Substituting m = 7 , we obtain L 7 = 5 0 4 0 − 1 8 5 4 e .
Thus A = 5 0 4 0 , B = − 1 8 5 4 , A + B = 3 1 8 6 .
Note that the answer doesn't depend on a k (s), so whatever it may be, even Fibonacci sequence, the answer still remains the same!