2016

Find d 2016 μ ( d ) \large \sum_{d|2016} \mu(d) where μ \mu denotes the Möbius function and the d d are the positive divisors of 2016. 2016.


The answer is 0.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

3 solutions

We can apply a fundamental result of the mobius function . Specifically, if n > 1 n > 1 then d n μ ( d ) = 0 . \sum_{d|n} \mu(d) = \boxed{0}.

The proof is as follows. Let n = p 1 α 1 p 2 α 2 p r α r n = p_1^{\alpha_1} \cdot p_2^{\alpha_2} \cdot \ldots \cdot p_r^{\alpha_r} ( α i 1 \alpha_i \ge 1 for all i =1,...,r). If d n d|n , d = p 1 β 1 p 2 β 2 p r β r d = p_1^{\beta_1} \cdot p_2^{\beta_2} \cdot \ldots \cdot p_r^{\beta_r} with 0 β i α i 0 \leq \beta_i \leq \alpha_i for i = 1,...,r. If β i 2 \beta_i \ge 2 for some i = 1, ... , r , then μ ( d ) = 0 \mu(d) = 0 . Therefore, d n μ ( d ) = ( β 1 , , β r ) / β i = 0 or 1 μ ( p 1 β 1 p r β r ) = \large \sum_{d|n} \mu(d) = \sum_{(\beta_1, \ldots , \beta_r)/ \beta_i = 0 \quad \text{or} \quad 1} \mu(p_1^{\beta_1} \cdot \ldots \cdot p_r^{\beta_r}) = = 1 ( r 1 ) + ( r 2 ) + ( 1 ) r ( r r ) = ( 1 1 ) r = 0. \large = 1 - \binom{r}{1} + \binom{r}{2} - \ldots + (-1)^{r} \binom {r}{r} = (1 - 1)^{r} = 0.

Moderator note:

Standard proof of this theorem.

Edwin Gray
May 19, 2018

I simply wrote all positive divisors of 2016, of which there are 36, and applied the definition of mu(n) to each one. That is, mu(1) =1. For n > 1, mu(n) = +1 if n has no square-free divisors and has an even number of prime divisors, mu(n) = -1 if n has no square-free divisors and has an odd number of prime factors, and mu(n) = 0 if n has a square-free divisor. (My first try gave 1 because I included 1 as a divisor. When told incorrect, I assumed that 1 should not be counted, so 0, but I have lingering questions about this. Ed Gray

Jerry Li
Apr 11, 2021

Here's another proof that d n μ ( d ) = 0 \displaystyle\sum_{d \mid n} \mu(d) = 0 for all n > 1. n > 1.

Note that sums of arithmetic functions on divisors are multiplicative. Therefore, if n = p 1 a 1 p 2 a 2 p k a k n = p_{1}^{a_{1}} p_{2}^{a_{2}} \cdots p_{k}^{a_{k}} we know that d n = d 1 p 1 a 1 μ ( d 1 ) d k p k a k μ ( d k ) . \displaystyle\sum_{d \mid n} = \displaystyle\sum_{d_{1} \mid p_{1}^{a_{1}}} \mu(d_{1}) \cdots \cdot \displaystyle\sum_{d_{k} \mid p_{k}^{a_{k}}} \mu(d_{k}). However, note that any term of the product is 0 0 , since all terms μ ( p 2 ) = 0 \mu(p^2)= 0 and μ ( 1 ) + μ ( p ) = 0 \mu(1) + \mu(p) = 0 so we are done.

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...