f 1 ( x ) f 2 ( x ) f 3 ( x ) f 4 ( x ) f 5 ( x ) f 6 ( x ) = = = = = = x 1 − x x 1 1 − x 1 x − 1 x x x − 1
If we know that f 6 ( f m ( x ) ) = f 4 ( x ) and f n ( f 4 ( x ) ) = f 3 ( x ) , find the minimum value of m + n .
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I just realized that this question is similar to the question in the MEI FP3 paper for June 2010
I love this group. If you make the assignment, f1(x) = x = cos^2 a, for an arbitrary angle a, then the other 5 functions generate the other 5 trig functions in this order, sin^2 a, sec^2 a, csc^2 a, -cot^2 a, and -tan^2 a. The composite of any pair, hence any number, yields one of the other functions in the group. For any selected argument and output function, there is only 1 other function that will form the correct composite. In that sense, there is no minimum value of m+n. There is only 1 choice for each.
If you DON'T read the question carefully, you will get it very simply without Group Theory :
First
f
6(
f
m(x)) =
f
4(x) therefore, (
f
m(x)-1) /
f
m(x) = 1/(1-x) from which we get
f
m(x) = (x-1)/x, which is the function
f
6.
m = 6
now, just compose the function f 4(x) in every given function, we find that f 5( f 4(x)) = f 3(x) . so n = 5
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The best way to approach this is to use group theory to prove that the functions form a complete group, (closed under the composite function operation):
1) Identity element is f 1
2) Inverses: f 1 , f 2 , f 3 and f 5 are all their own inverses and.. f 4 − 1 ( x ) = f 6 ( x ) . . . . f 6 − 1 ( x ) = f 4 ( x ) 3) The function are all associative
4) A Cayley table can be used to show that the group is closed under operation such that: ( f 6 ( x ) ) 2 = f 4 ( x ) . . . . . . . f 5 ( f 4 ( x ) ) = f 3 ( x ) ⇒ m = 6 , n = 5 ∴ m + n = 1 1