Given is a bag of 10 distinct balls. A person draws a set of 4 balls from the bag and puts them back. The person draws another set of 6 balls from the bag and puts them back again. What is the probability of drawing exactly 3 balls that was common to both the sets?
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Note that the bag contains 1 0 distinct balls.
We start out by selecting 3 balls from the bag of 1 0 balls that would be common to the set of 4 balls and the set of 6 balls that were drawn. The number of ways of selecting 3 balls from a bag of 1 0 balls is ( 3 1 0 ) . These 3 balls were common to both our sets, thus, we need to select 3 more balls from the balls that remain to make our set of 6 balls and after that 1 more ball from the remaining to make our set of 4 balls.
Selecting 3 balls from the remaining 7 balls that would constitute our set of 6 balls. The number of ways of doing this is ( 3 7 ) . And finally, selecting 1 more ball from the remaining 4 balls which can be done in ( 1 4 ) ways.
The total ways to select 6 balls and 4 balls from the bag of 1 0 balls is ( 4 1 0 ) × ( 6 1 0 ) .
Thus, the probability is : ( 4 1 0 ) × ( 6 1 0 ) ( 3 1 0 ) × ( 3 7 ) × ( 1 4 )
The correct answer to the problem is 2 1 8
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For the sake of argument, suppose all the balls are initially colored white, and when you draw the 4 balls initially, you color them black. Now we can rephrase the question as follows:
Well, for this to happen, you must have drawn 3 white balls ( ( 3 6 ) ways) and 3 black balls ( ( 3 4 ) ways) for a total of ( 3 6 ) ⋅ ( 3 4 ) = 8 0 ways to draw exactly 3 black balls. Since there are 10 balls total, there are ( 6 1 0 ) = 2 1 0 total ways to draw 6 balls.
Then the probability that you draw exactly 3 black balls is 2 1 0 8 0 = 2 1 8