3-in-1 coffee

Calculus Level 2

Evaluate

0 π / 2 ln ( cos x sin x ) ln ( tan x ) d x . \large \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln(\cos x \sin x) \ln (\tan x) \, dx.


The answer is 0.

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1 solution

Jake Lai
Nov 29, 2015

Let us simplify our integral:

0 π / 2 ln ( cos x sin x ) ln tan x d x = 0 π / 2 ( ln cos x + ln sin x ) ( ln sin x ln cos x ) d x = 0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x ln 2 sin x d x \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln(\cos x \sin x) \ln \tan x \ dx = \int_0^{\pi/2} (\ln \cos x + \ln \sin x)(\ln \sin x - \ln \cos x) \ dx = \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln^2 \cos x - \ln^2 \sin x \ dx

Initially, this seems to be a very difficult integral (perhaps requiring techniques beyond elementary calculus). However, inspecting the interval over which the integral is taken suggests that 0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x d x = 0 π / 2 ln 2 sin x d x \displaystyle \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln^2 \cos x \ dx = \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln^2 \sin x \ dx , since 0 π / 2 cos x d x = 0 π / 2 sin x d x \displaystyle \int_0^{\pi/2} \cos x \ dx = \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin x \ dx .

To rigorously prove this, we use u-substitution and the identity cos x = sin ( π 2 x ) \cos x = \sin(\dfrac{\pi}{2} - x) to obtain

0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x d x = 0 π / 2 ln 2 sin ( π 2 x ) d x ( Let u = π 2 x ) = π / 2 0 ln 2 sin u d u ( Reverse integral limits ) = 0 π / 2 ln 2 sin u d u \begin{aligned} \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln^2 \cos x \ dx &= \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln^2 \sin(\dfrac{\pi}{2} - x) \ dx & (\text{Let } u = \dfrac{\pi}{2} - x) \\ &= \int_{\pi/2}^0 -\ln^2 \sin u \ du & (\text{Reverse integral limits}) \\ &= \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln^2 \sin u \ du \end{aligned}

which verifies our hypothesis. Thus,

0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x ln 2 sin x d x = 0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x d x 0 π / 2 ln 2 sin x d x = 0 \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln^2 \cos x - \ln^2 \sin x \ dx = \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln^2 \cos x \ dx - \int_0^{\pi/2} \ln^2 \sin x \ dx = \boxed{0}

Prove or disprove: If a b f ( x ) d x = a b g ( x ) d x \displaystyle \int_a^b f(x) \ dx = \int_a^b g(x) \ dx , then

a b h ( f ( x ) ) d x = a b h ( g ( x ) ) d x \int_a^b h(f(x)) \ dx = \int_a^b h(g(x)) \ dx

(The 3-in-1 coffee thing comes from all three main trig functions appearing in the question and the remarkable theorem by an unknown author which states that mathematician \text{mathematician} maps coffee \text{coffee} to mathematics \text{mathematics} . A powerful corollary is that comathematician \text{comathematician} maps comathematics \text{comathematics} to ffee \text{ffee} .)

Jake Lai - 5 years, 6 months ago

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