Evaluate
∫ 0 π / 2 ln ( cos x sin x ) ln ( tan x ) d x .
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Prove or disprove: If ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b g ( x ) d x , then
∫ a b h ( f ( x ) ) d x = ∫ a b h ( g ( x ) ) d x
(The 3-in-1 coffee thing comes from all three main trig functions appearing in the question and the remarkable theorem by an unknown author which states that mathematician maps coffee to mathematics . A powerful corollary is that comathematician maps comathematics to ffee .)
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
Let us simplify our integral:
∫ 0 π / 2 ln ( cos x sin x ) ln tan x d x = ∫ 0 π / 2 ( ln cos x + ln sin x ) ( ln sin x − ln cos x ) d x = ∫ 0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x − ln 2 sin x d x
Initially, this seems to be a very difficult integral (perhaps requiring techniques beyond elementary calculus). However, inspecting the interval over which the integral is taken suggests that ∫ 0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x d x = ∫ 0 π / 2 ln 2 sin x d x , since ∫ 0 π / 2 cos x d x = ∫ 0 π / 2 sin x d x .
To rigorously prove this, we use u-substitution and the identity cos x = sin ( 2 π − x ) to obtain
∫ 0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x d x = ∫ 0 π / 2 ln 2 sin ( 2 π − x ) d x = ∫ π / 2 0 − ln 2 sin u d u = ∫ 0 π / 2 ln 2 sin u d u ( Let u = 2 π − x ) ( Reverse integral limits )
which verifies our hypothesis. Thus,
∫ 0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x − ln 2 sin x d x = ∫ 0 π / 2 ln 2 cos x d x − ∫ 0 π / 2 ln 2 sin x d x = 0