A point mass m = 1 is attached to the free end of a mass-less rigid rod of length L = 1 . The other end of the rod is attached to the origin with a ball joint, allowing the free end to be positioned at an arbitrary point in 3 D space (constrained by the length of the rod, or course). The gravitational acceleration is 1 0 in the negative z direction.
If the rod rotates in such a way that its free end is constantly at z = − 0 . 5 , what is the linear speed of the free end?
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@Karan Chatrath How to solve that 2nd order equation??
Taking the assumption that it is constrained at x = − 0 . 5 , we can infer three things:
(1) vertical force is 0
(2) Horizontal force is r m v 2
(3) The angle subtended by the rod with z axis is 60 degrees
Based on these, we can draw a F.B.D and get the following equations by letting F , the force exerted by the rod on point mass:
(1) F sin ( 3 0 ) = m g
F = 2 0
(2) F cos ( 3 0 ) = r m v 2
1 0 3 = 1 × cos ( 3 0 ) 1 × v 2
1 5 = v 2
v = 1 5
v ≈ 3 . 8 7 3
This problem actually describes a conical pendulum . Let the rod subtends an angle of α with vertical. Then the linear velocity v is related to the angular velocity ω through v = ω sin α . Now, cos α = 0 . 5 = ω 2 g . So ω = 2 g ⟹ v = ω sin α = 2 g × 2 3 = 2 3 g = 1 5 ≈ 3 . 8 7 3 .
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Pendulum parameterised in spherical coordinates:
x = sin θ cos ϕ y = sin θ sin ϕ z = cos θ
The equations of motion were derived in the previous version of this problem. They read:
θ ¨ = ϕ ˙ 2 sin θ cos θ + 1 0 sin θ ϕ ¨ = − 2 θ ˙ ϕ ˙ cot θ
It is given that z = − 0 . 5 .
⟹ θ = arccos ( − 0 . 5 ) = 3 2 π
This implies that θ is always constant and its higher derivatives are always zero. Using this fact in the equations of motion:
ϕ ¨ = 0 ∵ θ ˙ = 0 θ ¨ = 0 ⟹ ϕ ˙ 2 = cos θ − 1 0 ⟹ ϕ ˙ 2 = 2 0
Finally taking the time derivatives of the coordinates of the pendulum gives:
x ˙ = − sin θ sin ϕ ϕ ˙ y ˙ = sin θ cos ϕ ϕ ˙ z ˙ = 0 ∵ θ ( t ) = 3 2 π
FInally, the speed is:
V = x ˙ 2 + y ˙ 2 = sin θ ϕ ˙ = 2 3 2 0 = 4 3 × 2 0 = 1 5
Answer is:
V = 1 5