a ! + b ! + c ! = a ! ⋅ b !
If a , b , c are nonnegative integers, then there are a finite number of solutions to the above equation. Let them be ( a 1 , b 1 , c 1 ) , ( a 2 , b 2 , c 2 ) , ( a 3 , b 3 , c 3 ) , … , ( a n , b n , c n ) in some order. Find the value of
n + i = 1 ∑ n ( a i + b i + c i ) .
(If n = 0 , then the sum is zero, so you should write 0 as the answer.)
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Beautiful Problem and Solution!
(Interested readers should check out IMO SL 2015 N2 for a similar interesting problem)
I could not understand how g c d ( b ! , b ! − 1 ) = 1 would imply b ! ∣ a ! . Could you elaborate?
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Since b ! does not divide b ! − 1 , b ! must divide a ! .
Nice problem! In Case 3, on the third line from the bottom, there appears to be a double negative. * we find that neither values of a doesn't satisfy. * Just grammar.
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Relevant wiki: General Diophantine Equations - Problem Solving
Firstly, a , b > 1 , which can be proven by trivially checking these cases. Now, we will prove that c ≥ a , b . We have the following
a ! + b ! + c ! ⟹ c ! + 1 ⟹ c ! + 1 ⟹ a ! − 1 ⟹ a ! − 1 ⟹ a ! − 2 ⟹ a = a ! b ! = a ! b ! − a ! − b ! + 1 = ( a ! − 1 ) ( b ! − 1 ) ∣ c ! + 1 ≤ c ! + 1 ≤ c ! ≤ c ∀ a ≥ 3
Similarly, this can be proved for b . Thus, c ≥ a , b if they are both ≥ 3 . If a = 2 , we have b ! − 1 = c ! + 1 , which isn't satisfied for any integral b , c . Same applies if b = 2 . Thus, a , b > 2 . We will now prove a = b . We have
a ! + b ! + c ! ⟹ b ! + c ! ⟹ b ! ( 1 + b ! c ! ) g cd ( b ! , b ! − 1 ) = 1 ⟹ b ! = a ! b ! = a ! b ! − a ! = a ! ( b ! − 1 ) ∣ a !
Similarly, we can prove a ! ∣ b ! . Thus, a ! = b ! , so a = b . We now have
2 a ! + c ! c ! = a ! 2 = a ! ( a ! − 2 )
Firstly, note that a < c . Next, we will prove that the product of n consecutive numbers is divisible by n ! . But this is almost trivially true by looking at binomial coefficients:
( k k + n ) = k ! n ! ( k + n ) ! = n ! ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) … ( k + n )
Since all binomial coefficients are integers, it follows that the product of n consecutive numbers is divisible by n ! .
Using this, we have
a ! c ! ( a + 1 ) ( a + 2 ) … ( c ) ⟹ ( c − a ) ! = a ! − 2 = a ! − 2 ∣ a ! − 2
However, we have that a ! − 2 ≥ ( c − a ) ! , so c − a ≤ a . Thus, we also have ( c − a ) ! ∣ a ! , so ( c − a ) ! ∣ 2 . Thus, we have c = a + 1 , a + 2 . We will now consider both cases.
However, we have that a ! − 2 ≡ 2 ( m o d 4 ) if a ≥ 4 . Thus, 4 ∣ ( c − a ) ! , so c − a ≤ 3 . We will now consider each of the cases:
Case 1: c = a + 1
We have
a + 1 3 ⟹ a = a ! − 2 = a ( ( a − 1 ) ! − 1 ) = 3
The value of a we pertain from the factorisation of the LHS, using a ≥ 3 . Checking, we find this to be true, so we get c = 4 . Thus, one such solution is ( 3 , 3 , 4 ) .
Case 2: c = a + 2
We have
( a + 1 ) ( a + 2 ) 4 ⟹ a = a ! − 2 = a ( ( a − 1 ) ! − a − 3 ) = 4
However, when we check the inside of the bracket in the RHS, we find that the value of a doesn't satisfy. Thus, no solutions in this case.
Thus, the only solution is ( 3 , 3 , 4 ) . Therefore, the answer is 1 + 3 + 3 + 4 = 1 1 .
Note: We do not consider the alternate case when a < 4 , since it implies a = 3 , which is covered above.