An RLC circuit is excited by a DC voltage source V S . At time t = 0 , the inductors and capacitors are de-energized. The current flowing out of the source is I S . Define the cumulative energy supplied by the source as follows:
E S ( t ) = ∫ 0 t V S ( t ) I S ( t ) d t
Let I S m a x and I S m i n be the largest and smallest values of the source current over all time, respectively. Let E S m a x be the largest value of E S ( t ) over all time, and let E S ∞ be the limiting value of E S ( t ) as the elapsed time approaches infinity.
Determine the value of the quantity Q :
Q = I S m a x I S m i n E S ∞ E S m a x
Details and Assumptions:
1)
V
S
=
1
0
2)
R
1
=
R
2
=
L
1
=
L
2
=
C
1
=
C
2
=
1
3)
I
S
m
i
n
is negative. The other three quantities are positive
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@Guilherme Niedu How to do Laplace transformation?? Please
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@Neeraj Anand Badgujar it's an integral involving the function and an exponential. It has a lot of properties. It's better for you to read here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laplace_transform
@Guilherme Niedu has given a very nice Laplace solution. I will show the state-space formulation that can be used in conjunction with numerical integration. Express the time derivatives of state variables ( V C 1 , V C 2 , I L 1 , I L 2 ) in terms of the state variables and the forcing function (the source). Once the solution routine is written, it is trivial to find energies, maximum quantities, etc.
For capacitor 1:
I R 1 = R 1 V C 1 I C 1 = I L 1 − I R 1 V ˙ C 1 = C 1 I C 1
For capacitor 2:
I C 2 = I L 1 V ˙ C 2 = C 2 I C 2
For inductor 1:
I R 2 = I L 1 − I L 2 V R 2 = R 2 I R 2 V L 1 = ( V S − V C 1 ) − ( V R 2 + V C 2 ) I ˙ L 1 = L 1 V L 1
For inductor 2:
V L 2 = V R 2 I ˙ L 2 = L 2 V L 2
Source Current:
I
S
=
I
L
1
Numerical integration (Euler, for example):
V C 1 ( k ) = V C 1 ( k − 1 ) + V ˙ C 1 ( k − 1 ) Δ t V C 2 ( k ) = V C 2 ( k − 1 ) + V ˙ C 2 ( k − 1 ) Δ t I L 1 ( k ) = I L 1 ( k − 1 ) + I ˙ L 1 ( k − 1 ) Δ t I L 2 ( k ) = I L 2 ( k − 1 ) + I ˙ L 2 ( k − 1 ) Δ t
Just solved this one. Even I took a numerical route. The analytical solution posted by @Guilherme Niedu is impressive. Attached below is a plot showing the current and source energy variation with time.
Edited comment. The unit of energy shown in the plot is incorrect. It should have been hecto-joule [hJ] instead of deci-joule [dJ].
@Steven Chase
can you please provide me the code of your solution of this problem?
Thanks in advance
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Let's use the impedances in the Laplace form. Since the ratio voltage-current in an inductor with indutance L is: V ( t ) = L d t d i ( t ) , in the laplace domain the ratio I ( s ) V ( s ) is L s . Likewise this ratio for a capacitor with capacitance C is C s 1 and for a resistor with resistance R is just R . So, the total impedance of this circuit is ( / / means impedances in parallel):
Z ( s ) = ( s 1 / / 1 ) + s + s 1 + ( s / / 1 )
Z ( s ) = s 1 + 1 s 1 ⋅ 1 + s + s 1 + s + 1 s ⋅ 1
Z ( s ) = s + 1 1 + s + s 1 + s + 1 s
Z ( s ) = s s 2 + s + 1
The current in the laplace domain will be:
I S ( s ) = Z ( s ) V S ( s )
Since the input voltage is a step of amplitude 1 0 , V S ( s ) = s 1 0 . So:
I S ( s ) = s 2 + s + 1 1 0
I S ( s ) = 3 2 0 ⋅ ( s + 2 1 ) 2 + 4 3 4 3
In the time domain:
I S ( t ) = 3 2 0 e − 2 t sin ( 2 t 3 )
Differentiating and making in equal to 0, one gets that the solutions are in the form:
tan ( 2 t 3 ) = 3
Or:
2 t 3 = 3 π + k π
t = 3 3 2 π ( 1 + 3 k )
Where k is an integer. Our maximum I S m a x occurs when k = 0 and our minimum I S m i n occurs when k = 1 . So:
I S m a x = 1 0 e − 3 3 π ≈ 5 . 4 6 2 9 3
I S m i n = − 1 0 e − 3 3 4 π ≈ − 0 . 8 9 0 6 4
Our quantity E s ( t ) will be:
E s ( t ) = 3 2 0 0 ∫ 0 t e − 2 t sin ( 2 t 3 ) d t
After integration by parts twice:
E s ( t ) = 1 0 0 − 3 2 0 0 e − 2 t sin ( 2 t 3 + 3 π )
Since the exponential will go to 0 as t goes to ∞ , it's easy to see that:
E S ∞ = 1 0 0
For E S m a x , differentiating and making it equal to 0 , one gets that the solutions are in the form:
tan ( 2 t 3 + 3 π ) = 3
Or:
2 t 3 + 3 π = 3 π + k π
t = 3 2 k π
At k = 0 we will actually have E S m i n = 0 , and E S m a x will be attained at k = 1 :
E S m a x = 1 0 0 ( 1 + e − 3 π ) ≈ 1 1 6 . 3 0 3 3 5
Calculating Q :
Q = − 1 0 0 ( 1 + e − 3 π ) e − 3 5 π ≈ − 5 . 6 5 8 7 5