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Thanks for the Bonus part, didn't know about those
Let's prove that 7 6 is an automorphic number as mentioned by @David Vreken, that is 7 6 n ≡ 7 6 (mod 100) for natural number n , using Chinese remainder theorem .
Note that 7 6 n ≡ 0 (mod 4) and 7 6 n ≡ ( 7 5 + 1 ) n ≡ 1 n ≡ 1 (mod 25) . Therefore 7 6 n ≡ 2 5 k + 1 , where k is an integer. Then 2 5 k + 1 ≡ 0 (mod 4) ⟹ k ≡ 3 and 7 6 n ≡ 7 6 (mod 100) .
Great solution!
Notice that 7 6 ≡ − 2 4 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) . Then:
7 6 7 6 ≡ ( − 2 4 ) 7 6 ( m o d 1 0 0 )
But notice that 2 4 2 = 5 7 6 , which is congruent to 7 6 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) .
Extending this logic, we find that 7 6 7 6 ≡ 7 6 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) .
Nice use of congruence!
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@Mahdi Raza answer is 76 and 76% people got this right!
I changed the title to "76% people will get this right"
7 6 k always ends with the ending two digits as 7 6 ⟹ ∴ 7 6 7 6 ends with 7 6
The number 7 6 is automorphic , hence the last two digits of 7 6 7 6 would be 7 6 .
At the time I solved this problem, the percentage of correct answers was 76!
I changed the title to "76% people will get this right"
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From 7 6 1 = 7 6 , 7 6 2 = 5 7 7 6 , and 7 6 3 = 4 3 8 9 7 6 , it would appear that the last two digits 7 6 n are 7 6 for any positive integer n .
This can be proved inductively:
Therefore, the last two digits of 7 6 7 6 are 7 6 .
Bonus: 7 6 is called an automorphic number .