A 50 sided die

Alex plays a game in which you have to roll a fair 50 sided die.

Alex's first throw is to determine his game number G G .

If on the second roll he gets his G G number he wins, if he gets either 1 less than G G or one more than G G he loses and if he rolls neither G , G 1 G, G-1 nor G + 1 G+1 he rolls again until he gets one of these 3 numbers.

The game ends when Alex either wins or loses.

What is the probability that Alex will win?

If the probability can be expressed as a b \dfrac ab , where a a and b b are coprime positive integers, find a + b a+b .


The answer is 67.

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3 solutions

Matija Sreckovic
May 3, 2016

This is a very nice problem!

So, I guess the first thing we need to remark is that if Alex gets a 1 or 50 the first time he rolls, the "rules" are a little bit different. He can only lose if he gets a 2 (if he rolled a 1 the first time), or a 49 (if he rolled 50). If Alex had gotten a 2, 3, ..., or 49 on the first roll, he would have lost on 2 different outcomes (G-1 and G+1).

Once we get that out of the way, let's calculate the probability that Alex wins after n rolls: P ( n ) = { ( 47 50 ) n 1 1 50 if G ∉ { 1 , 50 } ( 48 50 ) n 1 1 50 if G { 1 , 50 } P(n) = \begin{cases} (\frac{47}{50})^{n-1}\frac{1}{50} &\mbox{if } G \not\in \{1, 50\} \\ (\frac{48}{50})^{n-1}\frac{1}{50} & \mbox{if } G \in \{1, 50\} \end{cases} .

Now, note that the probability that Alex rolls a number different than 1 and 50 on the first roll is 96%, and, obviously, the probability that G becomes 1 or 50 is 4%.

Furthermore, note that the probability of Alex winning is: P = { n = 1 ( 47 50 ) n 1 1 50 if G ∉ { 1 , 50 } n = 1 ( 48 50 ) n 1 1 50 if G { 1 , 50 } P = \begin{cases} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(\frac{47}{50})^{n-1}\frac{1}{50} &\mbox{if } G \not\in \{1, 50\} \\ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(\frac{48}{50})^{n-1}\frac{1}{50} & \mbox{if } G \in \{1, 50\} \end{cases} .

Combining the previous two paragraphs, we get the final solution, using the formula for the sum of a geometric series: P = 48 50 n = 1 ( 47 50 ) n 1 1 50 + 2 50 n = 1 ( 48 50 ) n 1 1 50 = 17 50 P = \frac{48}{50} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(\frac{47}{50})^{n-1}\frac{1}{50} + \frac{2}{50}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(\frac{48}{50})^{n-1}\frac{1}{50} = \frac{17}{50} .

Why is this Level 5? Did it in like... 30 seconds no brainer hahahaha

Ραμών Αδάλια - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Yeah, it's not the most difficult problem on the site, that's for sure. Maybe many people forget about what happens if G is 1 or 50. Either way, it'll be bumped down to level 3 or 4 if more people get it right.

Matija Sreckovic - 5 years, 1 month ago
Terry Smith
May 3, 2016

The prob of a win is 1 3 \frac{1}{3} except for when the first roil is a 1 or a 50 - then it is one half. 1 2 \frac{1}{2}

The total prob of a win is therefore 1 2 \frac{1}{2} + 1 2 \frac{1}{2} + 48 3 \frac{48}{3} all divided by 50 which is 17 50 \frac{17}{50} for a sum of 67

One could use a similar argument as yours to generalize for a n sided die.
1/2+1/2 + (n-2)/3 all divided by n which gives you (n+1)/(3n).

Paul Fournier - 5 years, 1 month ago
Zee Ell
May 3, 2016

I also calculated with the two cases ( 1 2 \frac {1} {2} probability of winning, when G is either 1 or 50, and 1 3 \frac {1} {3} otherwise, like Terry Smith did), but my formula looks a bit simpler:

48 50 × 1 3 + 2 50 × 1 2 = 17 50 \frac {48}{50} \times \frac {1}{3} + \frac {2}{50} \times \frac {1}{2} = \frac {17}{50} . Therefore, the solution is 17 + 50 = 67 \boxed {67} .

This way, we also get the same general formula for the n-sided die as Paul Fournier:

n 2 n × 1 3 + 2 n × 1 2 = ( n 2 ) + 3 3 n = n + 1 3 n \frac {n-2}{n} \times \frac {1}{3} + \frac {2}{n} \times \frac {1}{2} = \frac {(n-2)+3}{3n} = \frac {n+1}{3n}

Did it in the same way! Very simple approach

Marco Federico - 5 years, 1 month ago

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I have the esisest way 1/3 win chance if he got no 2to48 so on this prob = 1/3×48/50 + if he got 1 or 50 1/2×2/50 = 17/50

Gaurav Gupta - 5 years, 1 month ago

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