∫ 1 + cos x 1 − cos x ⎝ ⎛ r = 0 ∏ n ( 1 + sec ( 2 r x ) ) ⎠ ⎞ d x
Let f ( n ) be a function as described above for non-negative integer n . Let g ( x ) = f ( 4 ) ( x ) . If the solution to g ( x ) = 1 can be written in the form of 1 6 1 arccos ( e k ) , find ( ∣ k ∣ − 9 ) ! .
f ( n ) ( 0 ) = 0 , and take cos x = − 1 , cos ( n x ) = 0 .
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As usual neat and nice solution (+1!)
Neat and brilliant as usual! +1! :)
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But my approach was slightly different towards evaluating that continued product. instead of using product cosine series i multiplied and divided by tan(x/2)
And in general i got that tan(x/2)(1+secx) = tanx
Therefore the Product is recursive and hence evaluates = tan(2^n x)*cot(x/2)
And By the way all the best for JEE . Do well ! :)
Shouldn't the integral of tan have a natural logarithm. Please correct the solution. Otherwise it is perfect☺
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Let's generalise P = r = 0 ∏ n ( 1 + sec ( 2 r x ) ) . P = r = 0 ∏ n ( cos ( 2 r x ) cos ( 2 r x ) + 1 ) = 2 n + 1 r = 0 ∏ n ( cos ( 2 r x ) cos 2 ( 2 r − 1 x ) ) = ( cos ( 2 n x ) 2 n + 1 cos ( x / 2 ) ) r = 0 ∏ n ( cos ( 2 r − 1 x ) ) = ( cos ( 2 n x ) 2 n + 1 cos ( x / 2 ) ) ( 2 n + 1 sin 2 x sin ( 2 n + 1 2 x ) ) = tan ( 2 n x ) cot 2 x Coming back to integration, substituting P and using 1 − cos x = 2 sin 2 ( x / 2 ) and 1 + cos x = 2 cos 2 ( x / 2 ) so that cot ( x / 2 ) term in P gets canceled and hence integration is:
∫ tan ( 2 n x ) d x = − 2 n 1 ln ( cos ( 2 n x ) ) + 0 C
g ( x ) = f ( 4 ) ( x ) = − 1 6 1 ln ( cos ( 1 6 x ) )
g ( x ) = 1 ⟹ x = 1 6 1 cos − 1 e − 1 6
∴ ∣ k ∣ = 1 6
∴ ( 1 6 − 9 ) ! = 7 ! = 5 0 4 0