a and b are sequences such that:
a 0 = 1 ; a n = a n − 1 × 2 n 2 n − 1
b n = 2 n + 1 1
Find n = 0 ∑ ∞ a n b n .
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The main thing about this problem was to write a n in the way you have written. And I believe that you should give details about Newton's generalized binomial and how ( 2 n ) ! ! ( 2 n − 1 ) ! ! evaluates to the thing you have written.
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Another way to evaluate a n is to see the telescoping product r = 1 ∏ n ( a r − 1 a r ) = r = 1 ∏ n ( 2 r 2 r − 1 ) and since a 0 = 1 the result follows.
Thank you for your suggestion. I have added some explanation of that.
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Actually, a n = ( − 1 ) n ( n − 0 . 5 ) .
For integer-parametered binomial coefficients, we have ( r n ) = ( r − 1 n ) × r n − r + 1 .
This can be generalized to binomial with non-integer parameters.
If n = − 0 . 5 , then r n − r + 1 becomes r − 0 . 5 − r + 1 = r 0 . 5 − r = ( − 1 ) 2 r 2 r − 1 .
That means, ( n − 0 . 5 ) = ( n − 1 − 0 . 5 ) × ( − 1 ) 2 r 2 r − 1 .
Therefore, a n = ( − 1 ) n ( n − 0 . 5 ) .
Therefore:
n = 0 ∑ ∞ a n b n
= n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) n ( n − 0 . 5 ) 2 n + 1 1
= n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) n ( n − 0 . 5 ) ∫ 0 1 x 2 n d x
= ∫ 0 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) n ( n − 0 . 5 ) x 2 n d x
= ∫ 0 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n − 0 . 5 ) ( − x 2 ) n d x
= ∫ 0 1 1 − x 2 1 d x
= arcsin 1 − arcsin 0
= 2 π