A calculus problem by Kenny Lau

Calculus Level 4

a a and b b are sequences such that:

a 0 = 1 a_0=1 ; a n = a n 1 × 2 n 1 2 n a_n=a_{n-1}\times\dfrac{2n-1}{2n}

b n = 1 2 n + 1 b_n=\dfrac1{2n+1}

Find n = 0 a n b n \displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_nb_n .


The answer is 1.57079632679.

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1 solution

Kenny Lau
Oct 14, 2015

Actually, a n = ( 1 ) n ( 0.5 n ) a_n=(-1)^n\dbinom{-0.5}{n} .

For integer-parametered binomial coefficients, we have ( n r ) = ( n r 1 ) × n r + 1 r \dbinom{n}{r}=\dbinom{n}{r-1}\times\dfrac{n-r+1}{r} .

This can be generalized to binomial with non-integer parameters.

If n = 0.5 n=-0.5 , then n r + 1 r \dfrac{n-r+1}{r} becomes 0.5 r + 1 r = 0.5 r r = ( 1 ) 2 r 1 2 r \dfrac{-0.5-r+1}{r}=\dfrac{0.5-r}{r}=(-1)\dfrac{2r-1}{2r} .

That means, ( 0.5 n ) = ( 0.5 n 1 ) × ( 1 ) 2 r 1 2 r \dbinom{-0.5}{n}=\dbinom{-0.5}{n-1}\times(-1)\dfrac{2r-1}{2r} .

Therefore, a n = ( 1 ) n ( 0.5 n ) a_n=(-1)^n\dbinom{-0.5}{n} .

Therefore:

n = 0 a n b n \displaystyle\quad\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_nb_n

= n = 0 ( 1 ) n ( 0.5 n ) 1 2 n + 1 \displaystyle=\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n\dbinom{-0.5}n\frac1{2n+1}

= n = 0 ( 1 ) n ( 0.5 n ) 0 1 x 2 n d x \displaystyle=\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n\dbinom{-0.5}n\int_0^1x^{2n}\ \mathrm dx

= 0 1 n = 0 ( 1 ) n ( 0.5 n ) x 2 n d x \displaystyle=\int_0^1\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n\dbinom{-0.5}nx^{2n}\ \mathrm dx

= 0 1 n = 0 ( 0.5 n ) ( x 2 ) n d x \displaystyle=\int_0^1\sum_{n=0}^\infty\dbinom{-0.5}n(-x^2)^n\ \mathrm dx

= 0 1 1 1 x 2 d x \displaystyle=\int_0^1\frac1{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\ \mathrm dx

= arcsin 1 arcsin 0 \displaystyle=\arcsin1-\arcsin0

= π 2 \displaystyle=\frac\pi2

The main thing about this problem was to write a n a_n in the way you have written. And I believe that you should give details about Newton's generalized binomial and how ( 2 n 1 ) ! ! ( 2 n ) ! ! \frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!} evaluates to the thing you have written.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Another way to evaluate a n a_{n} is to see the telescoping product r = 1 n ( a r a r 1 ) = r = 1 n ( 2 r 1 2 r ) \displaystyle \prod_{r=1}^{n} \left(\dfrac{a_{r}}{a_{r-1}}\right) = \prod_{r=1}^{n}\left(\dfrac{2r-1}{2r}\right) and since a 0 = 1 a_{0} = 1 the result follows.

Ishan Singh - 5 years, 7 months ago

Thank you for your suggestion. I have added some explanation of that.

Kenny Lau - 5 years, 8 months ago

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