3 ! − 2 ! − 1 ! 1 + 4 ! − 3 ! − 2 ! 2 + 5 ! − 4 ! − 3 ! 3 + … = ?
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One could easily transform ( n + 1 ) ! n into n ! 1 − ( n + 1 ) ! 1 .
As a little algebra exercise, we can note that:
( n + 1 ) ! n = ( n + 1 ) ! n + 1 − 1 = ( n + 1 ) ! n + 1 − ( n + 1 ) ! 1 = n ! 1 − ( n + 1 ) ! 1 .
The last expression is how each term can be expressed. So, if we add it up infinite terms like this, they would cancel each other in a telescoping series, except for the first and the last terms on the sum. The first is one and the last converges to zero, and this makes the value of the sum we've saw become one.
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Your method is easier but you need to subtract the first term = 1/2 (which is obtained by putting n=1) as this is not a part of the original series given. Hence, the sum becomes half.
One can use taylor series of e x and then some integration.
How did you do this?
∑ i = 1 ∞ n ! ⋅ ( n + 2 ) 1 = ∑ i = 1 ∞ ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ! 1
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i=1 changes to i=2
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Oops. That's the next step. n+1 is missing from (n+2)!
∑ n = 3 ∞ n ! − ( n − 1 ) ! − ( n − 2 ) ! n − 2 = ∑ n = 3 ∞ ( n ( n − 1 ) − ( n − 1 ) − 1 ) ( n − 2 ) ! n − 2 = ∑ n = 3 ∞ n ( n − 2 ) ! 1 = ∑ n = 3 ∞ n ! n − 1 = ∑ n = 3 ∞ ( ( n − 1 ) ! 1 − n ! 1 ) = 2 1 , a telescoping sum.
The general term =
n/[(n + 2)! - (n + 1)! - n!] = n/n![(n + 2)(n + 1) - (n + 1) - 1] = 1/n!(n + 2)
= (n + 1)/n!(n + 1)(n +2) = (n +1)/(n + 2)! = [(n + 2) - 1]/(n + 2)!
= 1/(n + 1)! - 1/(n + 2)!
So the given series = 1/2! - 1/3! + 1/3! - 1/4! + 1/4! - 1/5! + 1/5! - ...... = 1/2! = 1/2
I get 1/2 .... Looking at denominator of 2nd term 4!-3!-2!=4(3!)-3!-2!=(3)3!-2!=(3^2-1)2! and taking a look at numerator we see tht it,s 2 and den (3^2-1)2!=3+1)((3-1) (2!) hence 3-1 or 2 is cancelled .and we get 1/(4 2!) and we get the same pattern for every den like for third 1/(5 3!)... Looking at the 2nd refined form multiplying num by 4and div by 4 gives = 3/5! so first term is 2/3! second 3/4! third 4/5! and so on ..Seeing 1 and 2nd term (1st)2/3!=(3-1)/3!=1/2!-1/3! 2nd 3/4!=(4-1)4!=+1/3!-1/4! so we get 1/2!-1/3!+1/3!-1/4! for1st 2 terms =1/2!-1/4! and now breaking 3rd into its constituents the smae way wud cancel -1/4! by adding +1/4! and so on ..We,ll get to infinty the result 1/2!-1/r! where is infintely large hence 1/r! =0 and so answer =1/2
From that series, We can change n/((n+2)!-(n+1)!-(n)! -----> 1/((n+2)(n)!)
sum_(n=1)^infinity 1/((n+2) n!) = 1/2
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Expressing this as an infinite sum, we have:
S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 2 ) ! − ( n + 1 ) ! − n ! n
⟹ S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 2 ) ⋅ ( n + 1 ) ⋅ n ! − ( n + 1 ) ⋅ n ! − n ! n
⟹ S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! ⋅ [ ( n + 2 ) ⋅ ( n + 1 ) − ( n + 1 ) − 1 ] n
⟹ S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! ⋅ [ ( n + 2 − 1 ) ⋅ ( n + 1 ) − 1 ] n
⟹ S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! ⋅ [ ( n + 1 ) 2 − 1 ] n ⟹ S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! ⋅ n ⋅ ( n + 2 ) n
⟹ S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! ⋅ ( n + 2 ) 1 ⟹ S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ! 1 ⟹ S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 2 ) ! ( n + 1 )
⟹ S = n = 2 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) ! n
The last sum is pretty easily known to have its value convergent to one, when its first value of the variable is one. As we removed the first term ( 1 + 1 ) ! 1 = 2 1 , this sum converges to S = 2 1 .