Drake is driving a bike on a straight road to his college at a speed of v . He realizes that he might be late for his exam.
To rush, he accelerates his bike at a constant acceleration of a for a distance of L 1 . Then, for the remaining distance L 2 , he slows down at a constant retardation of a to just reach his college.
Given that L 2 = k L 1 , what is the maximum velocity attained during his travel?
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Nicely done! I found the graph to be quite helpful, it helped me visualize the motion of the bike more clearly.
Hello Sir! Elegant solution. BTW what did you use to draw the graph?
The solution appears correct - but must be incomplete as it does not allow for the condition of k=1, which of course necessitates that he was initially traveling at 0. Allowing for that possibility, I immediately discard the second and third solutions. The fourth solution would yield a max velocity of 0 which is clearly incorrect and so guessed at the first solution as the only possible answer.
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We can easily extend this solution for the case where v is zero by applying v 2 − u 2 = 2 a s . We get v max = 2 a L 1 . In this case, v max depends on a .
I agree, we can use the limiting case of k → 1 to eliminate some options. I am curious, how did you decide between k − 1 k v and ( k − 1 k ) v ? They are both indeterminate cases for k → 1 .
Nice I did the same way
We will use the well known equation from kinematics
v 2 − u 2 = 2 a s
where u and v are initial and final velocities, a is a constant acceleration and s is the distance travelled.
Let V be the maximum speed, which will occur after the first leg of the journey. Applying the boxed formula to each leg of the journey gives
V 2 − v 2 = 2 a L 1 … ( 1 )
V 2 = 2 a L 2
Use the given relationship between the lengths to write this as
V 2 = k 2 a L 1
Substitute for 2 a L 1 from equation (1) to get
V 2 = k ( V 2 − v 2 )
Now an easy rearrangement gives
V = k − 1 k v
It can also be emphasized that we are able to use the kinematics equation because the acceleration/retardation is constant.
Say that the final velocity which it reaches in the first journey be v ′ .
So by Equation of Motion
v ′ 2 − v 2 = 2 L 1 a -------(1)
Again, In second journey, Final velocity = 0 and Initial Velocity = v ′
Hence 0 2 − v ′ 2 = 2 L 2 ( − a )
or v ′ 2 = 2 L 2 ( a )
Hence Max velocity in this journey is v ′ itself.
Hence we get,
v ′ = 2 L 2 a -------(2)
Putting v ′ = 2 L 2 a in equation 1 we get,
2 L 2 a − v 2 = 2 L 1 a
hence v 2 = 2 a ( L 2 − L 1 ) ----(3)
So a= L 2 − L 1 v 2
Now L 1 L 2 = k
So L 2 − L 1 = L 1 ( k − 1 )
So we have got everything
Now put in all these to get v ′ = v k − 1 k
@Md Zuhair , also please see my solution to this question and I request you to visit my profile and answer my doubt,it is on my posts.
brilliant.org/discussions/thread/electricity-and-magnetism-doubt/?ref_id=1328484
@Md Zuhair , I have added the link,let me know if you can do it.I will see it later. gtg.
@Ayon Ghosh . Are you bengali? In which class do you study?
@Md Zuhair , really sorry but I don't know how to write solutions in LATEX.I tried writing them in LATEX but found LATEX works only on the main content of the question.Could you help ?
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Ya sure, I can, You can check this site out,
http://atomurl.net/math/
My solution is the easiest solution ,apart from the m a s s i v e ones here ( which are no doubt good, but are a bit long).
2 ∗ a ∗ L 1 = v 2 2 − v 2 ... ( 1 ) (Here v 2 is max velocity)
2 ∗ a ∗ L 2 = v 2 ... ( 2 )
Divide ( 2 ) by ( 1 ) ,cross multiply then factorize ( no its an easy factorization)and we are done.
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The velocity-time graph of Drake will be as shown. The slope of the velocity-time graph gives the acceleration and also the area under it gives the displacement.
The slope for A B T 1 v max − v = a ⇒ T 1 = a v max − v . The slope for B C T 2 v max = a ⇒ T 2 = a v max . Area under A B = L 1 L 1 = 2 1 ⋅ ( v + v max ) T 1 ⇒ L 1 = 2 a v max 2 − v 2 . Area under B C = L 2 L 2 = 2 1 ⋅ v max T 2 ⇒ L 2 = 2 a v max 2 .
We know that L 1 L 2 = k k = v max 2 − v 2 v max 2 ⇒ v max = k − 1 k v .