A probability problem by Paola Ramírez

How many distinct integers between 1 and 100 inclusive would you have to pick (at the very least) to be guaranteed that there will be two of them that sum to 101?


The answer is 51.

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1 solution

Make a partition of the set { 1 , 2 , . . . , 100 } \left\{ 1,2,...,100 \right\} as follows:

{ 1 , 100 } \left\{ 1,100 \right\} , { 2 , 99 } \left\{ 2,99 \right\} ,..., { 50 , 51 } \left\{ 50,51 \right\}

The sum of any two elements of the same subset is 101, thus, we can choose at most 1 element of each set such that the sum of any two elements, that we have selected, is different to 101. Indeed, we can pick 50 elements, and, by Pigeonhole Principle, the next element we choose will belong to the same set of another element already selected. Therefore we have to pick up at least 51 elements of the initial set.

I did it in the same method! I thought that in the poor hypothesis you can take 50 numbers without these properties, that are numbers between 1 and 50, and between 51 and 100 inclusive. Thus we will need more one number to be sure about it.

Victor Paes Plinio - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Yeah, that's the intuitive idea of the demonstration, although, for rigorous purposes, this is the formal demonstration.

Mateo Matijasevick - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Thanks for the formal explanation !

Victor Paes Plinio - 5 years, 1 month ago

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