Pratik and Dhyan have the following conversation about their favorite numbers. Assuming they are both perfectly logical, which of the answer choices is equal to 1?
Pratik:
My favorite number,
P
,
is a perfect 6th power greater than
1
.
Dhyan:
My favorite number,
D
,
is
not
a real number -- but it does have the cool property that
D
2
0
1
5
=
1
.
Pratik:
That doesn't help me much! I can think of more than
P
numbers that could be your favorite.
Dhyan:
Well, then I know the value of
D
P
.
Note: You may find it useful to know that 2 0 1 5 = 5 × 1 3 × 3 1 .
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Sorry, @Pranshu Gaba and @Eli Ross , I didn't realize that Pranshu had provided a solution until after I posted mine, (I kept coming back to writing it after various other distractions). I'll leave it up anyway in case it's of any use. Nice problem. :)
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Multiple solutions are always a great thing!
Some people may like one approach better than another, or resonate with a certain writing/mathematical style more.
Thanks for sharing your solution!
From Pratik's first statement, we come to know that P = a 6 for some integer a > 1 . The first few possible values of P are 6 4 , 7 2 9 , 4 0 9 6 …
From Dhyan's reply to Pratik's first statement, we infer that D is not a real number, and it is one of the 2015th roots of unity. That is, D is of the form exp ( 2 0 1 5 2 π k i ) , k ∈ { 1 , 2 , 3 , … , 2 0 1 4 } . There are a total of 2 0 1 4 different values possible for D .
In Pratik's second statement, Pratik says that there are more than P possible values of D . We know that there are 2 0 1 4 possible values for D , so we get the inequality P < 2 0 1 4 . We see that the only possible values of P now are 6 4 and 7 2 9 .
From this deduction, Dhyan does not know whether P is 6 4 or 7 2 9 , yet he knows the value of D P . This means that D 6 4 and D 7 2 9 have the same value.
⟹ D 6 4 = D 7 2 9
⟹ exp ( 2 0 1 5 2 π k × 6 4 i ) = exp ( 2 0 1 5 2 π k × 7 2 9 i )
Since both the complex numbers are equal, their principle arguments are equal. That is, their arguments have a difference of a integral multiple of 2 π .
⟹ 2 0 1 5 2 π k × 6 4 + 2 n π = 2 0 1 5 2 π k × 7 2 9 , n ∈ Z
⟹ 6 4 k + 2 0 1 5 n = 7 2 9 k
⟹ 6 6 5 k = 2 0 1 5 n
⟹ 1 3 3 k = 4 0 3 n
⟹ k = 1 3 3 4 0 3 n
Since k is an integer and 1 3 3 is coprime with 4 0 3 , 1 3 3 must divide n . This means 1 3 3 n is an integer. Let's call it m . We see that m ∈ { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 } .
⟹ k = 4 0 3 m
⟹ D = exp ( 2 0 1 5 2 π × 4 0 3 m i )
⟹ D = exp ( 5 2 π × m i )
We see that D is a fifth root of unity not equal to 1 , therefore D 5 = 1 and none of the other options are equal to 1 .
Awesome solution! A slightly different (but mathematically equivalent) way to handle the last part is to note that we need 2 0 1 5 2 π k ( 3 6 − 2 6 ) = 2 π ⋅ 2 0 1 5 k ⋅ ( 3 3 − 2 3 ) ⋅ ( 3 3 + 2 3 ) = 2 π ⋅ 2 0 1 5 k ⋅ 1 9 ⋅ 7 ⋅ 5 to be an integer multiple of 2 π . Since 2 0 1 5 = 5 ⋅ 1 3 ⋅ 3 1 , and only the factor of 5 is in the numerator, we need to have k be a multiple of 1 3 ⋅ 3 1 , but not include a factor of 5 (else D would be real). Thus, only the factor of 5 will be left in the denominator in 2 0 1 5 2 π k .
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Thanks Eli! Your way is definitely more easier to use if the numbers involved in the problem are large. Factorization makes calculations simple!
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We first note that the equation D 2 0 1 5 − 1 = 0 has 2 0 1 5 roots, so D can be one of 2 0 1 5 different numbers, each of the form D k = e i k ∗ 2 0 1 5 2 π for integers 0 ≤ k ≤ 2 0 1 4 . Since we must have that P = a 6 < 2 0 1 5 for some integer a > 1 implies that P can either be 2 6 = 6 4 or 3 6 = 7 2 9 , as a 6 > 2 0 1 5 for ∣ a ∣ ≥ 4 .
Now since this is enough information for Dhyan to know the value of D P means that
D 6 4 = D 7 2 9 ⟹ D 7 2 9 − D 6 4 = D 6 4 ( D 6 5 5 − 1 ) = 0 .
Now D 6 4 = e 2 0 1 5 1 2 8 π = 0 , so we must have that
D 6 5 5 = 1 = e i m ∗ 2 π ⟹ 6 5 5 ∗ 2 0 1 5 2 k π = m ∗ 2 π ⟹ 6 5 5 k = 2 0 1 5 m ⟹ 1 3 3 k = 4 0 3 m
for some positive integers k , m . Now as 1 3 3 is prime and does not divide 4 0 3 it must divide m , and so we require that k = 4 0 3 n for some positive integer n . Thus Dhyan's favorite number is of the form
D = e i 4 0 3 n ∗ 2 0 1 5 2 π = e i ∗ 5 n ∗ 2 π , for which D 5 = e i n ∗ 2 π = 1 .
As 3 , 1 3 and 3 1 are primes distinct from 5 , we can conclude that D 5 is the only one of the given options that equals 1 .