Let w = e π i / 2 0 1 5 . Without resorting to trigonometry, find k = 1 ∏ 2 0 1 4 ( w k − w − k )
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And from there, we can actually derive -
k = 1 ∏ n − 1 s i n ( n k π ) = 2 n − 1 n
*You must have gotten how.
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Yes, exactly... that's why I posted this problem, to outline a simple proof for this trig identity. Let me do the same thing for the cos identity.
I believe it is a product, not a sum.
Yes indeed...In the solution I just took care of the part "without resorting to trigonometry".
Thank you for posting this clear and elegant proof! That's exactly what I had in mind...
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No idea why the answer eluded me for so long! I was searching for some explanation by Newton's identities, Vieta's formulas, even Euler's pentagonal number theorem (before I realised that was an infinite product).
Boiled down to polynomial interpolation in the end; such a simple but beautiful problem.
You cannot divide by ( z − 1 ) and then substitute z = 1 !
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Sure we can...we are dealing with a polynomial.
In the second last step of the solution you got the answer 2015. Then how did you conclude that the answer to the question is -2015 ???
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He has a factor e 1 0 0 7 π i = − 1 in the first equation.
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k = 1 ∏ 2 0 1 4 ( w k − w − k ) = w ∑ k = 1 2 0 1 4 k ∏ k = 1 2 0 1 4 ( w 2 k − 1 ) = e 1 0 0 7 π i ∏ k = 1 2 0 1 4 ( e 2 0 1 5 2 k π i − 1 )
Now consider the set { e 2 0 1 5 2 k π i : k = 0 , 1 , 2 , . . . . , 2 0 1 4 } is the set of all solutions of z 2 0 1 5 = 1 Hence
z 2 0 1 5 − 1 = ( z − 1 ) k = 1 ∏ 2 0 1 4 ( z − e 2 0 1 5 2 k π i )
1 + z + z 2 + . . . . z 2 0 1 4 = k = 1 ∏ 2 0 1 4 ( z − e 2 0 1 5 2 k π i )
Putting z = 1 both sides gives k = 1 ∏ 2 0 1 4 ( e 2 0 1 5 2 k π i − 1 ) = 2 0 1 5
Hence answer is − 2 0 1 5