Given and are both prime numbers larger than 3. Is the statement below always true ? (Bonus: Why not or Why?)
is always divisible by 6.
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We know that the product of 3 consecutive positive numbers is always divisible by 3. Therefore 1 0 a ( 1 0 a + 1 ) ( 1 0 a + 2 ) is always divisible by 3.
a is a prime number, so it's not divisible by 3. 10 is not divisible by 3 as well, so 1 0 a is never divisible by 3. (or 1 0 a is coprime to 3)
1 0 a + 1 is also a prime number, so it's not divisible by 3. (Or 1 0 a + 1 is coprime to 3)
Therefore, 1 0 a + 2 = 2 ( 5 a + 1 ) is divisible by 3. But 2 is coprime to 3, so 5 a + 1 is divisible by 3.
a is a prime number larger than 3, so a is always odd. Therefore, 5 a + 1 is always even.
2 and 3 are coprime integers, therefore 5 a + 1 always divisible by 6.