The value of the infinite sum
k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k F k = 2 1 + 4 1 + 8 2 + 1 6 3 + 3 2 5 + 6 4 8 + … ,
where F k represents the k t h Fibonacci number, can be written as b a , where a and b are positive coprime integers. Find a + b .
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thats it......so easy....and so beautiful
I did something similar by expanding F k = F k − 1 + F k − 2 and then factoring out powers of 2 and changing variables (you have to be careful and set F 0 = 0 and F − 1 = 1 ). That leads to x = 2 1 x + 4 1 ( x + 2 ) .
We can also use this :
If we call S the sum of this quantity, so :
S = \sum {k=1}^∞ \frac {F {k}}{2^{k}}
= \sum_{k=0}^∞ \frac {F_{k}}{2^{k}} (F_{0}=0)
= \frac 12F_{1} + \sum_{k=2}^∞ \frac {F_{k-1}+F_{k-2}}{2^{k}}
= \frac {1}{2} + \sum_{k=2}^∞ \frac {F_{k-1}}}{2^{k}} + \sum_{k=2}^∞ \frac {F_{k-2}}{2^{k}}
= \frac {1}{2} + \frac {1}{2} \times \sum_{k=0}^∞ \frac {F_{k}}}{2^{k}} + \frac {1}{2^{2}} \times \sum_{k=0}^∞ \frac {F_{k}}{2^{k}}
= \frac {1}{2} + \frac 12S + \frac 12^{2}S
Then, S = \frac {2}{2^{k} - 2 - 1} = 2 = \frac {2}{1}
a+b = 2+1 = 3
but sir I could not understand how this equals to 1+1/2x
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this is 1+x/2
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x/2=1/4+1/8+.......from first equation deviding by 4
Oh my lorde I did that exact method and got that exact answer but the problem led me to believe it was a fancy fraction instead of 2/1. My self inflicted torment.
1 is not a prime. I can prove it
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The numbers 1 and −1 are coprime to every integer, and they are the only integers to be coprime with 0.
Sir, you are changing the infinite series by subtracting and multiplying. Use same method for sum of 1+2+2^2 +2^3.... A=1+2+2^2 +2^3.... 2A = 2+2^2+2^3.... Subtract both equations you will get A=-1
Beautiful Solution!
Well since I cannot be beautiful I'll just beLet's see the property of Fibonacci Sum:
F k − 1 + F k = F k + 1
Then, we can apply this to the sum, then the sums will look like 2 1 + 4 1 + 8 1 + 1 + 1 6 1 + 2 + 3 2 2 + 3 + . . . = 2 1 + 4 1 + 8 1 + 8 1 + 1 6 1 + 1 6 2 + 3 2 3 + 3 2 2 . . . = 2 1 + ( 4 1 + 8 1 + 1 6 2 + 3 2 3 + . . . ) + ( 8 1 + 1 6 1 + 3 2 2 + 6 4 3 + . . . ) Then we can change the second and third term and express as k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k F k = 2 1 + k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k + 1 F k + k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k + 2 F k k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k F k = 2 1 + 2 1 k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k F k + 4 1 k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k F k 4 1 k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k F k = 2 1 k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k F k = 1 2 Thus the answer is 3
very good :) How can you write solution like this ?
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If you are talking about the Latex format, the instruction is in formatting guide, which is below post or comment section.
Thanks Albert.You are really great.
Oh just realized that I saw comets that had almost identical solution as these. Sorry for repost!
The generating function for the Fibonacci numbers is F ( x ) = ∑ k = 0 ∞ F n x n = 1 − x − x 2 x and the sum is equal to ∑ k = 1 ∞ F k ( 2 1 ) k = ∑ k = 0 ∞ F k ( 2 1 ) k = F ( 2 1 ) = 2 = 2 1 .
This is incredible use of Discrete Mathematics.
Some solutions here assume that the series converges - here's a solution using probabilities to 'avoid' that issue:
Suppose A and B are playing a game consisting of several rounds. They both have a 2 1 chance of winning any round. Suppose the game ends when one of the players wins three consecutive rounds. Let S n be a set containing the sequences of winners of each round such that the game ends in n rounds, where n ≥ 3 , e.g. S 5 = { A A B B B , A B A A A , B A B B B , B B A A A } . Let T n be a subset of S n containing the sequences that start with two different winners, e.g. T 5 = { A B A A A , B A B B B } .
Let m ≥ 4 . There is bijection between T m and S m − 1 , by just removing the first player in each sequence of T m (the inverse is to prepend the other player who is not the initial winner for each sequece of S m − 1 to that same sequence). Furthermore, there is a bijection between S m \ T m and T m − 1 , by removing the first player in each sequence of S m \ T m (the inverse is to prepend the same player who is the initial winner for each sequence of T m − 1 to that same sequence). Thus we know that ∣ S m ∣ = ∣ T m ∣ + ∣ S m \ T m ∣ = ∣ S m − 1 ∣ + ∣ T m − 1 ∣
Define the Fibonacci sequence by F 0 = 0 , F 1 = 1 , F i = F i − 1 + F i − 2 for i ≥ 2 . Now observe that ∣ S 3 ∣ = 2 , ∣ T 3 ∣ = 0 . We claim that ∣ S n ∣ = 2 F n − 2 , ∣ T n ∣ = 2 F n − 3 . We can prove this by induction, for which the base case n = 3 is already done. The inductive step is essentially the last equation in the previous paragraph.
The probability that the game ends in n rounds is therefore 2 n ∣ S n ∣ = 2 n − 1 F n − 2 . Since the sum of probabilities is 1 , we conclude that k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 k F k = n = 3 ∑ ∞ 2 n − 2 F n − 2 = 2 n = 3 ∑ ∞ 2 n − 1 F n − 2 = 2 n = 3 ∑ ∞ probability that game ends in n rounds = 2
S = 2 1 + 4 1 + 8 2 + 1 6 3 + . . . . . . . ∞
4 S = 8 1 + 1 6 1 + 3 2 2 + 6 4 3 + . . . . . . . ∞
S − 4 S = 2 1 + 4 1 + 8 1 + 1 6 2 + 3 2 3 + . . . . ∞
Now for the 4th term of the above series to be a perfect term of GP we need to subtract the above series with 8 S and so on.
S − ( 4 S + 8 S + 1 6 S + . . . . ∞ ) = 2 1 + 4 1 + 8 1 + 1 6 1 + 3 2 1 + . . . . ∞
Now, we have 2 G.P.s and so just use the GP formula both times to get the answer.
S − 1 − 2 S 4 S = 1 − 2 1 2 1
2 S = 1
S = 2
We can also use this :
If we call S the sum of this quantity, so :
S = ∑ k = 1 ∞ 2 k F k = ∑ k = 0 ∞ 2 k F k ( F 0 = 0 ) = 2 1 F 1 + ∑ k = 2 ∞ 2 k F k − 1 + F k − 2 = 2 1 + ∑ k = 2 ∞ 2 k F k − 1 + ∑ k = 2 ∞ 2 k F k − 2 = 2 1 + 2 1 × ∑ k = 0 ∞ 2 k F k + 2 2 1 × ∑ k = 0 ∞ 2 k F k = 2 1 + 2 1 S + 2 1 2 S
Then, S = 2 k − 2 − 1 2 = 2 = 1 2
a+b = 2+1 = 3
There has been a saying says: "Violence is Art." So i'll give out a violent solution.
As everybody knows, the Fibonacci number has a fomula: F n = 5 1 ( ( 2 1 + 5 ) n − ( 2 1 − 5 ) n )
So do a little deform:
n = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 n F n = n = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 n 5 1 ( ( 2 1 + 5 ) n − ( 2 1 − 5 ) n ) = 5 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ 4 n ( 1 + 5 ) n − ( 1 − 5 ) n = 5 1 ( n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 4 1 + 5 ) n − n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 4 1 + 5 ) n )
and it is a normal geometric sequence. Easy to know that it is 2, which is 1 2
so the answer is 1 + 2 = 3
I used a little bit of Python to get to my answer.
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Let x be the desired sum. Then
2 x = 1 + 2 1 + 4 2 + 8 3 + 1 6 5 + 3 2 8 + …
Subtracting the series that x represents from the 2 x series above yields
2 x − x = 1 + 4 1 + 8 1 + 1 6 2 + 3 2 3 + … ,
which is equal to 1 + 2 1 x . So solving the equation x = 1 + 2 1 x for x yields x = 2 = 1 2 . Therefore the answer is 2 + 1 = 3 .