Here's my proof that
1
infinitely many 0’s
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
…
0
is equal to 0.
In which of these steps did I
first
make a flaw in my logic?
Step 1 : Let X = infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 .
Step 2 : Divide both sides by 10, 1 0 X = infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 . 9 .
Step 3 : Take the difference between these two equations:
X − 1 0 X 1 0 9 X 0 . 9 X 0 . 9 X X = = = = = infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 − infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 . 9 infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 − ( infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 + 0 . 9 ) infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 − ( infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 + 0 . 9 ) − 0 . 9 − 1
Step 4 : Substitute back the value of X and add 1 to both sides to the equation.
infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 infinitely many 9’s 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 … 9 + 1 1 infinitely many 0’s 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 … 0 = = = − 1 − 1 + 1 0
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Correct. Thankyou
x = ∞ so step 1 is the answer.
Correct. Thankyou
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In the first step we take x to be equal to infinitely many 9 s ,which is basically ∞ . This is the first wrong step since ∞ cannot be equated since it is not any number.Moreover arithmetic operations cannot be performed on such an equation. Since the question asks for the first wrong step the answer is Step 1