Given that a , b , c are positive real numbers and a + b + c = 1 .
Is it always true that a 4 + b 4 + c 4 ≥ a b c ?
Bonus: If it is true, prove the inequality.
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Almost the same as Alice 's solution.
We know that, since a , b , c are reals, therefore
( a 2 − b 2 ) 2 + ( b 2 − c 2 ) 2 + ( c 2 − a 2 ) 2 ≥ 0 ⟹ a 4 + b 4 + c 4 ≥ a 2 b 2 + b 2 c 2 + c 2 a 2 .
Now, a 2 b 2 + b 2 c 2 ≥ 2 a b 2 c (A. M. - G. M. inequality)
b 2 c 2 + c 2 a 2 ≥ 2 a b c 2
and c 2 a 2 + a 2 b 2 ≥ 2 a 2 b c .
Therefore 2 ( a 2 b 2 + b 2 c 2 + c 2 a 2 ) ≥ 2 a b c ( a + b + c ) ⟹ a 2 b 2 + b 2 c 2 + c 2 a 2 ≥ a b c . (since a + b + c = 1 ).
Hence, a 4 + b 4 + c 4 ≥ a b c .
Without any loss of generality, assume a ≥ b ≥ c . We have a 4 + b 4 + c 4 = a 2 ⋅ a 2 + b 2 ⋅ b 2 + c 2 ⋅ c 2 ≥ ( a ) a 2 b c + b 2 c a + c 2 a b = a b c ( a + b + c ) = ( b ) a b c . where the step (a) follows from the Rearrangement inequality , and the step (b) follows from the fact that a + b + c = 1 .
I wonder how exactly the Rearrangement inequality is used.
Use the Rearrangemeny inequality multiple times a 2 a 2 + b 2 b 2 + c 2 c 2 ≥ a 2 b a + b 2 a b + c 2 c 2 ≥ a 2 b c + b 2 a b + c 2 a c ≥ a 2 b c + b 2 c a + c 2 a b .
I just put: a = 1 , b = 1 , c = 0 and a 4 + b 4 + c 4 = a b c so I put yes.
Good. Can you generally prove it?
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No... Help, I guess?
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I posted a solution here, but I think the solution isn't elegant enough and not easy to think up. Maybe it can help you.
For a = 1 , b = 1 , c = 0 , how do a 4 + b 4 + c 4 and a b c equal?
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Notice that a + b + c = 1 :
a 4 + b 4 + c 4 = 2 1 ( a 4 + b 4 + a 4 + c 4 + b 4 + c 4 ) ≥ 2 1 ( 2 a 2 b 2 + 2 a 2 c 2 + 2 b 2 c 2 ) = 2 1 ( a 2 b 2 + a 2 c 2 + a 2 b 2 + b 2 c 2 + a 2 c 2 + b 2 c 2 ) ≥ 2 1 ( 2 a b ⋅ a c + 2 a b ⋅ b c + 2 a c ⋅ b c ) = a 2 b c + a b 2 c + a b c 2 = a b c ( a + b + c ) = a b c
The two equalities are achieved if and only if a = b = c = 3 1 , so a 4 + b 4 + c 4 can be equal to a b c , thus the geq sign.