True or False?
For any integer n > 3 , the last digit of 2 1 × 2 × 3 × ⋯ × n is always 6.
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A pair of extension questions:
Is it true that for any integer n > 3 , the last digit of 7 1 × 2 × 3 × ⋯ × n is always 1?
Given any integer b , is there always some integer k such that for all n > k , the last digit of b 1 × 2 × 3 × ⋯ × n is always some constant?
if n=0, erase it, if not, if divided by 0 or multiplied by 0 it becomes 0.
The cyclicity of powers of 7 is 7, 9, 3, 1, we can have unit digit 1 in 2^n! only when n! is divisible by 4, and this is true for all n > 3. Since there is always a cyclicity given any integer, the second statement is always correct.
I wished to know that how can we post a challenge master note?
k would be equal to the power b is raised to at the end of it's first digit cycle minus one. So, take 69 for example. The cyclicity of powers of 69 is 9, 1. This cycle has 2 numbers, so for any n > 1, 69 ^ n! has a final digit of 1.
The last digit of 6 k where, 1 < = k is always 6
2 1 × 2 × 3 × ⋯ × n if n > 3 then,
2 1 × 2 × 3 × ⋯ × n = 2 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × ⋯ × n = ( 2 1 × 2 × 3 ) 4 × 5 × 6 × ⋯ × n = 6 4 4 × 5 × 6 × ⋯ × n ≡ 4 4 × 5 × 6 × ⋯ × n ( m o d 1 0 ) ≡ ( 4 2 ) 2 × 5 × 6 × ⋯ × n ( m o d 1 0 ) ≡ 1 6 2 × 5 × 6 × ⋯ × n ( m o d 1 0 ) ≡ 6 2 × 5 × 6 × ⋯ × n ( m o d 1 0 ) ≡ 6 k ( m o d 1 0 ) ≡ 6 ( m o d 1 0 )
Therefore, it is proved that , for n > 3 the last digit of 2 1 × 2 × 3 × ⋯ × n is always 6 .
I really appreciate this solution! It involves more creative thinking with basic tools and doesn't even require an understanding of the cyclicity of powers to understand. Thank you!
The last 1 is 2
The last digit of powers of 2 can be generalized as
2 N ( m o d 1 0 ) = { 2 N ( m o d 4 ) , 2 4 = 1 6 ≡ 6 mod 1 0 , if N ( m o d 4 ) ≡ 1 , 2 , 3 if N ( m o d 4 ) ≡ 0
That is, if the power modulus 4 is equivalent to 1 , 2 , or 3 , then the last digit is that remainder itself. If the power is congruent to 0 mod 4 - in other words, if 4 divides the power - then the last digit is 6 . This is generalized as such because the powers of 2 form the periodic sequence 2 , 4 , 8 , 6 for powers > 0 .
Now, observe that n ! ≡ 0 ( m o d 4 ) ∀ n ≥ 4 . This is because all factorials ≥ 4 ! will have a factor of 4 .
( n + 1 ) ! ⟹ n ! ⟹ n ⟹ 4 = ( n + 1 ) ⋅ n ! ∀ n ≥ 0 ∣ ( n + 1 ) ! ∀ n ≥ 0 ∣ ( n + 1 ) ! ∀ n ≥ 0 ∣ ( n + 1 ) ! ∀ n ≥ 4 Let n = 4
Because n ! ≡ 0 ( m o d 4 ) ∀ n ≥ 4 , we can conclude that 2 n ! ≡ 6 ( m o d 1 0 ) ∀ n ≥ 4 . ■
Not only two, but all other numbers have a cyclicity of 4
In this solution 'number' will mean 'positive integer', and 'power' will mean 'positive integral power'.
First note that if the rightmost digit of a number is 6, then all the powers of that number end in 6. This follows from 6 × 6 = 3 6 and the traditional algorithm for long multiplication. You find a power by multiplying the previous power by your number and start ' six sixes make thirty-six so write down 6 and carry three...'. The six which you write down becomes the rightmost digit of your answer. So if your number has a six in the least significant position, you can never get away from it in the subsequent powers of the number.
Secondly note that 2 4 ! = 1 6 7 7 7 2 1 6 which ends with a six.
Then 2 5 ! = ( 2 4 ! ) 5 . Being the power of a number which ends in six, this also ends in six.
Then 2 6 ! = ( 2 5 ! ) 6 . Being the power of a number which ends in six, this also ends in six.
and so it goes on and on.
For a gold star you could make this solution more formal by invoking mathematical induction.
If two integers both have a one's digit of 6, their product will also be an integer with a one's digit of 6. Write it out and try it. All you need to do is the first step of the multiplication. 6 * 6 = 36. You would write the 6 down and carry the 3. If you were to complete this multiplication, under that 6 would be a bunch of 0's. And when all is added together at the end, 6 + 0 + 0 +...+ 0 = 6. It will always happen.
And so, mathematical induction starting with n = 4 :
2 4 ! = 1 6 7 7 7 2 1 6 Check
A calculator can tell you that, but put that to the power of 5 and a calculator will put the answer in scientific notation and you won't see the last digit. But you don't need to.
Assuming this is true for n, is it true for n+1?
2 ( n + 1 ) ! = ( 2 n ! ) n + 1
Since 2 n ! is an integer ending in 6, based on our earlier deduction, if this number is multiplied by itself n + 1 times, the resulting product will also end in 6. □
Notice that the last digit of 2 4 is 6 . Raising 2 4 to N where N is a positive integer yields 6 as the last digit. The requirement for 2 1 × 2 × 3 × . . . × n or 2 n ! to have 6 as its last digit is that n ! must be divisible by 4 . Values for n greater than 3 or n > 3 make n ! divisible by 4. Thus, this proves that for any integer n > 3 , the last digit of 2 1 × 2 × 3 × . . . × n is always 6.
2 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 ≡ 6 4 4 ≡ 4 4 ≡ 2 5 6 ≡ 6 ( m o d 1 0 )
Proposition:
6 k ≡ 6 ( m o d 1 0 ) ∀ k ∈ Z +
Proof:
We proceed by induction:
Base Case: n = 1
In this case we have 6 n ≡ 6 1 ≡ 6 ( m o d 1 0 ) ,which is true.
Inductive Step:
Assume that for some m ,we have 6 m ≡ 6 ( m o d 1 0 ) .
Therefore,we have: [6^{m+1}\equiv 6^m\times 6\equiv 6\times 6\equiv 36\equiv 6\pmod{10})
Hence proved.
Therefore,for n > 3 ,we have: 2 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × ⋯ × n ≡ 6 5 × 6 × ⋯ × n ≡ 6 ( m o d 1 0 )
Because n > 3 , we have 2 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × … × n = ( 2 4 ) 1 × 2 × 3 × … × n = 1 6 1 × 2 × 3 × … × n . And 1 6 × 1 6 × 1 6 × . . . × 1 6 always ends with digit 6.
n > 3 , so n ≥ 4 , and 4 ∣ n ! . Thus, the expression can be written as ( 2 2 ) 2 m , for some integer m. Take this mod 5 to get: ( 2 2 ) 2 m ≡ ( − 1 ) 2 m ≡ 1 m o d 5 . The expression must then either end in 1 or 6. Obviously, it is even, so it ends in 6.
Oh, this is the cleanest solution here. Everyone else does the whole "multiply by 6 over and over again", but yours is just "Show mod 5 = 1, and it's an even number, thus answer is 6."
Thanks for sharing!
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Relevant wiki: Finding the Last Digit of a Power
As the cyclicity of powers of 2 is 2 , 4 , 8 , 6 , we can have unit digit 6 in 2 n ! only when n ! is divisible by 4. And, this is true for all n > 3 , because it will have 4 as a factor.