A matter of '6'!

True or False?

For any integer n > 3 n>3 , the last digit of 2 1 × 2 × 3 × × n \large 2^{1\times 2\times 3\times \cdots \times n} is always 6.

True False

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9 solutions

Aaryan Maheshwari
Jul 12, 2017

Relevant wiki: Finding the Last Digit of a Power

As the cyclicity of powers of 2 2 is 2 , 4 , 8 , 6 2,4,8,6 , we can have unit digit 6 6 in 2 n ! 2^{n!} only when n ! n! is divisible by 4. And, this is true for all n > 3 n>3 , because it will have 4 4 as a factor.

Moderator note:

A pair of extension questions:

  1. Is it true that for any integer n > 3 n>3 , the last digit of 7 1 × 2 × 3 × × n \large 7^{1\times 2\times 3\times \cdots \times n} is always 1?

  2. Given any integer b , b, is there always some integer k k such that for all n > k n>k , the last digit of b 1 × 2 × 3 × × n \large b^{1\times 2\times 3\times \cdots \times n} is always some constant?

if n=0, erase it, if not, if divided by 0 or multiplied by 0 it becomes 0.

Henry Ford - 3 years, 10 months ago

The cyclicity of powers of 7 is 7, 9, 3, 1, we can have unit digit 1 in 2^n! only when n! is divisible by 4, and this is true for all n > 3. Since there is always a cyclicity given any integer, the second statement is always correct.

Pierre AA - 3 years, 10 months ago

I wished to know that how can we post a challenge master note?

Aaryan Maheshwari - 3 years, 10 months ago

k would be equal to the power b is raised to at the end of it's first digit cycle minus one. So, take 69 for example. The cyclicity of powers of 69 is 9, 1. This cycle has 2 numbers, so for any n > 1, 69 ^ n! has a final digit of 1.

Duncan Schaafsma - 3 years, 7 months ago
Fahim Saikat
Jul 15, 2017

The last digit of 6 k 6^k where, 1 < = k 1<=k is always 6

2 1 × 2 × 3 × × n \large 2^{1\times 2\times 3\times \cdots \times n} if n > 3 n>3 then,

2 1 × 2 × 3 × × n = 2 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × × n = ( 2 1 × 2 × 3 ) 4 × 5 × 6 × × n = 6 4 4 × 5 × 6 × × n 4 4 × 5 × 6 × × n ( m o d 10 ) ( 4 2 ) 2 × 5 × 6 × × n ( m o d 10 ) 1 6 2 × 5 × 6 × × n ( m o d 10 ) 6 2 × 5 × 6 × × n ( m o d 10 ) 6 k ( m o d 10 ) 6 ( m o d 10 ) \large \begin{aligned} 2^{1\times 2\times 3\times \cdots \times n}&= 2^{1\times 2\times 3\times4\times \cdots \times n}\\ &=(2^{1\times 2\times 3})^{4\times5\times6\times \cdots \times n}\\ &=64^{4\times5\times6\times \cdots \times n}\\ &\equiv 4^{4\times5\times6\times \cdots \times n} \pmod {10}\\ &\equiv (4^2)^{2\times5\times6\times \cdots \times n} \pmod {10}\\ &\equiv 16^{2\times5\times6\times \cdots \times n} \pmod {10}\\ &\equiv 6^{2\times5\times6\times \cdots \times n} \pmod {10} \\ &\equiv 6^k\pmod {10}\\&\equiv 6 \pmod {10}\end{aligned}

Therefore, it is proved that , for n > 3 n>3 the last digit of 2 1 × 2 × 3 × × n \large 2^{1\times 2\times 3\times \cdots \times n} is always 6 .

I really appreciate this solution! It involves more creative thinking with basic tools and doesn't even require an understanding of the cyclicity of powers to understand. Thank you!

Kelsey Payne - 3 years, 10 months ago

The last 1 is 2

Dain E - 3 years, 10 months ago

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which one?

fahim saikat - 3 years, 10 months ago
Zach Abueg
Jul 10, 2017

The last digit of powers of 2 2^{ } can be generalized as

2 N ( m o d 10 ) = { 2 N ( m o d 4 ) , if N ( m o d 4 ) 1 , 2 , 3 2 4 = 16 6 mod 10 , if N ( m o d 4 ) 0 2^N \pmod{10} = \begin{cases} {\color{#3D99F6}{2^{N \pmod{4}}}} \text{,} & \text{if} \ N \pmod{4} \equiv 1, 2, 3 \\ 2^4 = 16 \equiv {\color{#3D99F6}{6}} \ \text{mod} \ 10 \text{,} & \text{if} \ N \pmod{4} \equiv 0 \end{cases}

That is, if the power modulus 4 4^{ } is equivalent to 1 1 , 2 2 , or 3 3 , then the last digit is that remainder itself. If the power is congruent to 0 mod 4 0 \ \text{mod} \ 4 - in other words, if 4 4^{ } divides the power - then the last digit is 6 6 . This is generalized as such because the powers of 2 2 form the periodic sequence 2 , 4 , 8 , 6 2, 4, 8, 6 for powers > 0 > 0 .

Now, observe that n ! 0 ( m o d 4 ) n 4 n! \equiv 0 \pmod{4} \ \forall \ n \geq 4 . This is because all factorials 4 ! \geq 4! will have a factor of 4 4^{ } .

( n + 1 ) ! = ( n + 1 ) n ! n 0 n ! ( n + 1 ) ! n 0 n ( n + 1 ) ! n 0 Let n = 4 4 ( n + 1 ) ! n 4 \displaystyle \begin{aligned} (n + 1)! & = (n + 1) \cdot n! \ \forall \ n \geq 0 \\ \implies n! & \mid (n + 1)! \ \forall \ n \geq 0 \\ \implies n & \mid (n + 1)! \ \forall \ n \geq 0 & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{Let} \ n = 4 \\ \implies 4 & \mid (n + 1)! \ \forall \ n \geq 4 \end{aligned}

Because n ! 0 ( m o d 4 ) n 4 n! \equiv 0 \pmod{4} \ \forall \ n \geq 4 , we can conclude that 2 n ! 6 ( m o d 10 ) n 4 2^{n!} \equiv 6 \pmod{10} \ \forall \ n \geq 4 . \blacksquare

Not only two, but all other numbers have a cyclicity of 4

Sswag SSwagf - 3 years, 10 months ago

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Yes, or 2 or 1, even.

Zach Abueg - 3 years, 10 months ago
Peter Macgregor
Jul 17, 2017

In this solution 'number' will mean 'positive integer', and 'power' will mean 'positive integral power'.

First note that if the rightmost digit of a number is 6, then all the powers of that number end in 6. This follows from 6 × 6 = 36 6 \times 6 = 36 and the traditional algorithm for long multiplication. You find a power by multiplying the previous power by your number and start ' six sixes make thirty-six so write down 6 and carry three...'. The six which you write down becomes the rightmost digit of your answer. So if your number has a six in the least significant position, you can never get away from it in the subsequent powers of the number.

Secondly note that 2 4 ! = 16777216 2^{4!}=16777216 which ends with a six.

Then 2 5 ! = ( 2 4 ! ) 5 2^{5!}=\left(2^{4!}\right)^5 . Being the power of a number which ends in six, this also ends in six.

Then 2 6 ! = ( 2 5 ! ) 6 2^{6!}=\left(2^{5!}\right)^6 . Being the power of a number which ends in six, this also ends in six.

and so it goes on and on.

For a gold star you could make this solution more formal by invoking mathematical induction.

Louis W
Jul 17, 2017

If two integers both have a one's digit of 6, their product will also be an integer with a one's digit of 6. Write it out and try it. All you need to do is the first step of the multiplication. 6 * 6 = 36. You would write the 6 down and carry the 3. If you were to complete this multiplication, under that 6 would be a bunch of 0's. And when all is added together at the end, 6 + 0 + 0 +...+ 0 = 6. It will always happen.

And so, mathematical induction starting with n = 4 n=4 :

2 4 ! = 16777216 2^{4!}=16777216\quad\quad Check

A calculator can tell you that, but put that to the power of 5 and a calculator will put the answer in scientific notation and you won't see the last digit. But you don't need to.

Assuming this is true for n, is it true for n+1?

2 ( n + 1 ) ! = ( 2 n ! ) n + 1 2^{(n+1)!}=(2^{n!})^{n+1}

Since 2 n ! 2^{n!} is an integer ending in 6, based on our earlier deduction, if this number is multiplied by itself n + 1 n+1 times, the resulting product will also end in 6. \quad\Box

Notice that the last digit of 2 4 2^{4} is 6 6 . Raising 2 4 2^{4} to N where N is a positive integer yields 6 6 as the last digit. The requirement for 2 1 × 2 × 3 × . . . × n 2^{1 \times{2} \times{3} \times{...} \times{n}} or 2 n ! 2^{n!} to have 6 as its last digit is that n ! n! must be divisible by 4 4 . Values for n greater than 3 or n > 3 n > 3 make n ! n! divisible by 4. Thus, this proves that for any integer n > 3 n > 3 , the last digit of 2 1 × 2 × 3 × . . . × n 2^{1 \times{2} \times{3} \times{...} \times{n}} is always 6.

2 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 6 4 4 4 4 256 6 ( m o d 10 ) 2^{1\times 2\times 3\times 4}\equiv 64^4\equiv 4^4\equiv 256\equiv 6\pmod{10}

Proposition: \underline{\textbf{Proposition:}}

6 k 6 ( m o d 10 ) k Z + 6^k\equiv 6\pmod{10}\forall k\in\mathbb{Z^+}

Proof: \underline{\textbf{Proof:}}

We proceed by induction:

Base Case: n = 1 \underline{\text{Base Case:}\;n=1}

In this case we have 6 n 6 1 6 ( m o d 10 ) 6^n\equiv 6^1\equiv 6\pmod{10} ,which is true.

Inductive Step: \underline{\text{Inductive Step:}}

Assume that for some m m ,we have 6 m 6 ( m o d 10 ) 6^m\equiv 6\pmod{10} .

Therefore,we have: [6^{m+1}\equiv 6^m\times 6\equiv 6\times 6\equiv 36\equiv 6\pmod{10})

Hence proved.

Therefore,for n > 3 n>3 ,we have: 2 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × × n 6 5 × 6 × × n 6 ( m o d 10 ) \color{#D61F06}{\Large{2^{1\times 2\times 3\times 4\times\cdots\times n}\equiv 6^{5\times 6\times\cdots \times n}\equiv 6\pmod{10}}}

Han Mai
Jul 21, 2017

Because n > 3 n > 3 , we have 2 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × × n = ( 2 4 ) 1 × 2 × 3 × × n = 1 6 1 × 2 × 3 × × n 2^{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \ldots \times n} = (2^4)^{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times \ldots \times n} = 16^{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times \ldots \times n} . And 16 × 16 × 16 × . . . × 16 16 \times 16 \times 16 \times ... \times 16 always ends with digit 6.

Bryan Hung
Jul 18, 2017

n > 3 n>3 , so n 4 n \geq 4 , and 4 n ! 4 \vert n! . Thus, the expression can be written as ( 2 2 ) 2 m (2^2)^{2m} , for some integer m. Take this mod 5 to get: ( 2 2 ) 2 m ( 1 ) 2 m 1 m o d 5 (2^2)^{2m} \equiv (-1)^{2m} \equiv 1 \mod 5 . The expression must then either end in 1 or 6. Obviously, it is even, so it ends in 6.

Oh, this is the cleanest solution here. Everyone else does the whole "multiply by 6 over and over again", but yours is just "Show mod 5 = 1, and it's an even number, thus answer is 6."

Thanks for sharing!

Pi Han Goh - 3 years, 10 months ago

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