2 1 , 3 1 , 4 1 , 5 1 , 6 1 , 7 1 , 8 1
In how many ways can one arrange the numbers above such that the sum of every four consecutive numbers is divisible by 3 ?
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0.31.41.0.0.61.71.0 ... there are 8 ways for this form We have 3 choice for the second 0, 2 choice for the third 0, And the final number have 2 place at first 0 anh forth 0. So we have 8x3x2x2 = 96 arrangements
I couldn't understand why 24 was multiplied by 3! in the end. Please Explain.
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Because a 1 , a 2 , a 3 can be permuted in 3 ! ways.
These numbers leave when divided by 3. We have 3 0s (21, 51, 81), 2 1s (31, 61), and 2 -1s (41, 71).
Any combination of the following form will do: 1 -1 0 0 1 -1 0 or -1 1 0 0 -1 1 0 or 0 1 -1 0 0 1 -1 or 0 -1 1 0 0 -1 1
As we can observe it is needed a cycle of 1 -1 0 0 or -1 1 0 0.
For each of the 4 possibilities listed, the permutations are 3! * 2! * 2!=6 * 2 * 2=24 (3! for the 3 0s, and 2! for both 1s and -1s)
There are two more possibilities: 1 0 -1 0 1 0 -1 and -1 0 1 0 -1 0 1
Finally, the total number of ways is 6 * 24 = 144
Scientific I would tell.
From 21, 31, 41, 51, 81, 61, 71 of 144, 204, 234, 264 coded 1234756
To 81, 71, 61, 51, 21, 41, 31 of 264, 204, 174, 144 coded 7654132,
There are a total of 144 out of 5040 which satisfied.
Answer: 144
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We categorise the numbers mod 3:
2 1 , 5 1 , 8 1 3 1 , 6 1 4 1 , 7 1 ≡ 0 ( mod 3 ) ≡ 1 ( mod 3 ) ≡ 2 ( mod 3 )
Call an arrangement of the seven numbers a 1 , a 2 , … , a 7 . We have:
a 1 + a 2 + a 3 + a 4 a 2 + a 3 + a 4 + a 5 ≡ 0 ( mod 3 ) ≡ 0 ( mod 3 )
hence a 1 ≡ a 5 ( mod 3 ) . Likewise, a 2 ≡ a 6 ( mod 3 ) and a 3 ≡ a 7 ( mod 3 ) . Thus a 4 , the one remaining number, must be in the class 0 ( mod 3 ) .
The numbers a 1 , a 2 , a 3 must each be put in a different residue class, which we can pick in 3 ! ways. Each residue class can then be arranged at will, giving 3 ! × 2 ! × 2 ! possibilities. Hence in total we have 3 ! 3 ! 2 ! 2 ! = 1 4 4 arrangements.