Find all ( a , b , c ) ∈ Z + such that
a ! + 2 0 0 1 b ! = c !
Enter your answer as the sum of all possible values of a , b , c
For example if the solutions are ( 4 , 5 , 6 ) , ( 6 , 7 , 8 ) , then enter your answer as 4 + 5 + 6 + 6 + 7 + 8 = 3 6
For more problems try the sets My Problems and THRILLER .
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When a = b , we have
2002b ! = c !
c(c - 1)(c - 2)...(b + 1) = 2002
2002 = 2 × 7 × 11 × 13 so there is no way for 2002 to be expressed as a product of 2 or more consecutive integers. Thus when a = b the only solution for (a,b,c) is (2001, 2001, 2002).
For the case of b > a we consider the largest power of 3 that divides a, b and c. Let them be a 1 , b 1 and c 1 respectively. Since b > a ,
a 1 ⩽ b 1
Therefore we can say that 2001b! = a!(3k) for some integer k since 3 divides 2001.
c! = 2001b! + a! = a!(3k + 1)
Since 3 does not divide 3k + 1 , c 1 = a 1 , which implies c ⩽ a + 2 . Since none of a, b and c are equal and c > b > a , It then follows that c = a + 2, b = a+1 . The original condition then simplifies to
a!(1 + 2001(a + 1)) = (a + 2)(a + 1)a!
2001a + 2002 = a 2 + 3a + 2
a 2 - 1998a - 2000 = 0
Since the quadratic has no integer solutions, there are no solutions where b > a .
The final case is when b < a . Consider the largest power of 2 that divides a, b and c, letting them be a 2 , b 2 and c 2 respectively.
c > a > b
if a 2 > b 2 ,
c! = a! + 2001b! = b!(2k + 2001) for some integer k
c 2 = b 2 < a 2 , a contradiction.
Therefore a 2 = b 2 , i.e. a = b + 1 and b is even.
c! = (b+1)b! + 2001b! = (b + 2002)b!
(b +1)(b + 2)...(c) = b + 2002
(b + 1)(b + 2) | b + 2002 because c ⩾ b + 2
b + 1 | 2001
b + 2 | 2000
Given that 2001 = 3 × 23 × 29, by considering all possible values of b + 1 we find that the only possible value of b is 2, which does not have a solution for a and c.
In conclusion, the only solution for (a,b,c) is (2001, 2001, 2002), so the answer is 2001 + 2001 + 2002 = 6 0 0 4
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Here's a straightforward solution using some trick on order. We first notice that this equation can be written as b ! c ! − a ! = 2 0 0 1 . Of course, a ! , b ! , c ! are all positive, hence c > a . Next we find the place for b . Obviously, it cannot exceed c , since the left hand side of equation would be fraction. Also, it cannot lie between a and c , using the same reasoning. Therefore, c > a ≥ b . From here, we can rewrite the equation as ( b ! a ! ) ( a ! c ! − 1 ) = 2 0 0 1 , and both inside those brackets are integers. In fact, b ! a ! and a ! c ! are products of some consecutive numbers. The factorization of 2 0 0 1 is 3 × 2 3 × 2 9 , and its divisors are 1 , 3 , 2 3 , 2 9 , 6 9 , 8 7 , 6 6 7 , 2 0 0 1 .
Now, we look at b ! a ! . Notice that all of divisors of 2 0 0 1 except 1 is not a product of two or more consecutive numbers, so we have that the possible solutions are ( a , b ) = ( 3 , 2 ) , ( 2 3 , 2 2 ) , ( 2 9 , 2 8 ) , ( 6 9 , 6 8 ) , ( 8 7 , 8 6 ) , ( 6 6 7 , 6 6 6 ) , ( 2 0 0 1 , 2 0 0 0 ) . However, if we put these numbers into equation, we would have, from c ! = a ! ( a ! / b ! 2 0 0 1 + 1 ) , that c ! = 6 6 8 ⋅ 3 ! , 8 8 ⋅ 2 3 ! , 7 0 ⋅ 2 9 ! , 3 0 ⋅ 6 9 ! , 2 4 ⋅ 8 7 ! , 4 ⋅ 6 6 7 ! , 2 ⋅ 2 0 0 1 ! , which are all impossible for integer c . Therefore, there is only one case left, that is when b ! a ! = 1 , or a = b .
If a = b , then we have that a ! c ! = 2 0 0 2 . The divisors of 2 0 0 2 = 2 × 7 × 1 1 × 1 3 are 1 , 2 , 7 , 1 1 , 1 3 , 1 4 , 2 2 , 2 6 , 7 7 , 9 1 , 1 4 3 , 1 5 4 , 1 8 2 , 2 8 6 , 1 0 0 1 , 2 0 0 2 . Observe that we cannot write 2 0 0 2 as product of two or more consecutive numbers again, so we must have that c = 2 0 0 2 and a = b = 2 0 0 1 . The solution is thus 2 0 0 1 + 2 0 0 1 + 2 0 0 2 = 6 0 0 4 .