In base 2,
1 1 × 1 1 1 1 1 × 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 × 1 1 1 1 = 1 0 0 1 = 1 1 0 0 0 1 = 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 .
What is 1 1 1 1 1 × 1 1 1 1 1 ?
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We a see a pattern from the given so we can conclude that ⟹ 1 1 1 1 1 × 1 1 1 1 1 = 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1
What pattern? Why is this true? How do you know that the pattern will continue?
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I think there is a typo in the problem because we can solve it by seeing a pattern in the first few products.
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This is the pattern l am talking about
1 1 2 2 = 1 0 0 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 = 1 1 0 0 0 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 = 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 = 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 2
( n 1 1 1 . . . 1 1 1 ) 2 = n − 1 1 1 1 . . . 1 1 1 n 0 0 0 . . . 0 0 0 1
solution belongs to Sir @Chew-Seong Cheong
11111 converted to base 10 is 1+2+4+8+16=31. So the squaring this gives 961 which is 111100000 in base 2. Do the answer is wrong.
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The pattern is ( n 1 1 1 . . . 1 1 1 ) 2 = n − 1 1 1 1 . . . 1 1 1 n 0 0 0 . . . 0 0 0 1 . It always holds true and it is able to prove it.
Any ( n 1 1 1 . . . 1 1 1 ) always equals to ( 1 n 0 0 0 . . . 0 0 0 − 1 )
Therefore, ( n 1 1 1 . . . 1 1 1 ) 2 = ( 1 n 0 0 0 . . . 0 0 0 − 1 ) 2 = ( 1 n 0 0 0 . . . 0 0 0 ) 2 − 1 n + 1 0 0 0 . . . 0 0 0 + 1 = 1 2 n 0 0 0 . . . 0 0 0 − 1 n 0 0 0 . . . 0 0 0 1 = n − 1 1 1 1 . . . 1 1 1 n 0 0 0 . . . 0 0 0 1 .
By the same method, we can get a conclusion:
Back to the question, 1 1 1 1 1 × 1 1 1 1 1 = 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1