A number theory problem by Omar Nader

What is the value of 0 ! \Large 0!

Undefined 1 0 \infty

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4 solutions

John Sy
Jun 20, 2016

We can denote n ! n! as ( n + 1 ) ! n + 1 \frac{(n+1)!}{n+1}

for example: 3 ! 3! = 4 ! 4 \frac{4!}{4} = 4 3 2 1 4 \frac{4 \cdot 3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1}{4} = 3 2 1 = 6 3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1 = 6

Because of this concept, we can denote 0 ! 0! as 1 ! 1 \frac{1!}{1} or 1 1 \frac{1}{1} which can be simplified as 1

Doesn’t this answer mean 0! = 1! ?

Tony Tu - 6 months ago
Andrew Ellinor
Mar 18, 2016

Mathematicians have found that 0 ! 0! is much more useful being defined as 1, rather than 0. So, the factorial 0 ! 0! is defined as 1. This can be seen when we use such formulas as n C k = n ! k ! ( n k ) ! _nC_k = \dfrac{n!}{k!(n -k)!} in instances where n = k . n = k.

For instance, when given a list of 5 toppings for a pizza, how many 5 topping subsets are there? Well, there's just one! But let's see how that works in the formula n C k . _nC_k. Here, we have 5 toppings to choose from, so n = 5. n = 5. Furthermore, we wish to see how many 5 topping subsets there are, so k = 5. k = 5. Therefore, our answer is

5 C 5 = 5 ! 5 ! ( 5 5 ) ! = 5 ! 5 ! 0 ! = 5 ! 5 ! 0 ! = 1 0 ! _5C_5 = \dfrac{5!}{5!(5 - 5)!} = \dfrac{5!}{5!0!} = \dfrac{\cancel{5!}}{\cancel{5!}0!} = \frac{1}{0!}

We know that there can only be 1 possible selection, so 0 ! 0! must be 1 in order for 1 0 ! \frac{1}{0!} to return a value of 1.

Who says that !0 is 0, no it is undefined,

Aditya Sharma - 5 years, 2 months ago

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0! =1. Why? Think of factorial as how many ways you can sort items . 3!=6, 2!=2, 1!=1. Now, how many ways can you sort 0 items? 1 Way. There it is [ ].

Stephen Moore - 4 years, 11 months ago

Fantastic explanation!!

Jacob Matini - 5 months, 2 weeks ago

Uh.... So we can change how numbers work based on usefulness? Ok well I should remember that next time I go to the bank.

Al Rise - 5 years, 1 month ago

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No one's changing anything. That's just how 0! is defined. There is only one way to arrange zero objects, like there only one way to do one object: 0! = 1! = 1.

Whitney Clark - 4 years, 11 months ago

So you're dividing by 0!, which is still basically 0 (n * n-1 * ... 1), and anything divided by 0 is "undefined."

Alan Eisenhour - 4 years, 11 months ago

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Except we're not dividing by zero. 5!/5 = 4!, 4!/4 = 3, and 1!/1 = 0! = 1.

Whitney Clark - 4 years, 11 months ago

0 ! 0! is not 0 0 . For 1 0 ! \frac { 1 }{ 0! } to be 1 1 , 0 ! 0! has to be equal to 1 1 .

Kenneth Choo - 4 years, 11 months ago

Because it is

Bibhor Singh
Apr 9, 2018

4! = 24, 3! = 6, 2! = 2, 1! = 1. If you see these numbers you can see a specific pattern. 3! = 24/4 = 6, 2! = 6/3 = 2, 1! = 2/2 = 1. Following this pattern, 0! = 1/1 = 1.

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