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Algebra Level 2

What is the real part of ln ( 1 ) \ln(-1) ?


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The answer is 0.

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2 solutions

Swagat Panda
Aug 4, 2016

( 1 ) = e ( 2 k + 1 ) i π , k Z + ln ( 1 ) = ln e ( 2 k + 1 ) i π ln ( 1 ) = i π = 0 + i π \left( -1 \right) ={ e }^{ \left( 2k+1 \right) i\pi }, \quad k\in {Z}^{+} \Rightarrow \ln { \left( -1 \right) } =\ln { e^{ \left( 2k+1 \right) i\pi } } \Rightarrow \ln { \left( -1 \right) }=i\pi=0+i\pi Hence the real part is 0 \text{Hence the real part is }\boxed0

z = ln ( 1 ) e z = 1 = 1 + 0 i = cos π + i sin π e z = e π i z = π i ln ( 1 ) = 0 + π i \begin{aligned} z & = \ln(-1) \\ e^z & = -1 \\ & = - 1 + 0i \\ & = \cos \pi + i \sin \pi \\ \implies e^z & = e^{\pi i} \\ z & = \pi i \\ \implies \ln(-1) & = \color{#3D99F6}{0} + \pi i \end{aligned}

Therefore, the real part of ln ( 1 ) \ln(-1) is 0 \boxed{0} .

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