∫ 0 1 x 2 cos ( x ) cos ( x ) ln ( cos ( x ) ) + x sin ( x ) d x
If the definite integral above can be expressed in the form ln f ( 1 ) , where f ( x ) is an elementary function, then what is the value of f ( π ) ?
Note: Don't use CAS!
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You don't even need parts notice once you split the fraction its just product rule
Observe when we take derivative of f(x)g(x) we have f'(x)g(x)+g'(x)f(x) In this case set f(x)=ln(cos(x)) and g(x)=1/x Then it's evident the negation of this is what the integral becomes once you split it
@Tom Van Lier No problem
If we ignore the limits in the definite integral above, the indefinite integral cannot be easily found using elementary functions. We can use differentiation under the integral sign to evaluate the definite integral without having to evaluate the indefinite integral.
I ( t ) = ∫ 0 1 x 2 cos ( t x ) cos ( t x ) ln ( cos ( t x ) ) + t x sin ( t x ) d x = ∫ 0 1 x 2 ln ( cos ( t x ) ) + x t tan ( t x ) d x
I ′ ( t ) = d t d ∫ 0 1 x 2 ln ( cos ( t x ) ) + x t tan ( t x ) d x = ∫ 0 1 δ t δ ( x 2 ln ( cos ( t x ) ) + x t tan ( t x ) ) d x
I ′ ( t ) = ∫ 0 1 − x tan ( t x ) + x tan ( t x ) + t sec 2 ( t x ) d x = ∫ 0 1 t sec 2 ( t x ) d x
Now we can evaluate this integral with respect to x and find an expression for I ′ ( t ) entirely in terms of t .
I ′ ( t ) = ∫ 0 1 t sec 2 ( t x ) d x = tan t x ∣ ∣ ∣ x = 0 x = 1 = tan t
Now that we have found I ′ ( t ) we can determine an expression for I ( t ) .
I ( t ) = ∫ tan t d t = − ln ( cos ( t ) ) + c = ln ( sec ( t ) ) + c
To solve for the constant of integration, we go back to the original integral. I ( 0 ) = ∫ 0 1 x 2 ln ( cos ( 0 ) ) + x 0 tan ( 0 ) d x = 0 . Substituting these into the equation for I ( t ) shows that c = 0 and hence I ( t ) = ln ( sec ( t ) ) . To find the value of the original definite integral, substitute t = 1 into I ( t ) to obtain ln ( sec ( 1 ) ) . Hence f ( x ) = sec ( x ) and f ( π ) = − 1 .
The indefinite integral can be quite easily found, using the sum rule and then P.I. on the first integral. It is equal to x − l n ( c o s ( x ) ) (see solution below with boundaries, but that doesn't change the steps).
What is CAS?what method is it?
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Computer Algebra System, in other words don't use a calculator.
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I = ∫ 0 1 x 2 c o s ( x ) c o s ( x ) l n ( c o s ( x ) ) + x s i n ( x ) d x = ∫ 0 1 x 2 l n ( c o s ( x ) ) d x + ∫ 0 1 x c o s ( x ) s i n ( x ) d x
Using partial integration on the first integral , with u = l n ( c o s ( x ) ) and v ′ = x 2 1 ⇒ v = x − 1 ,
we find for I :
I = x − l n ( c o s ( x ) ) ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 1 − ∫ 0 1 x c o s ( x ) s i n ( x ) + ∫ 0 1 x c o s ( x ) s i n ( x ) = x − l n ( c o s ( x ) ) ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 1 .
Now plugging in 1, gives us -ln(cos(1)), while plugging in 0, gives us 0 0
Using L'Hôpital's rule on this undetermined expression, gives us t a n ( x ) , which is equal to zero when x equals zero.
So I = − l n ( c o s ( 1 ) ) , f ( x ) = c o s ( x ) and c o s ( π ) = − 1 .