In triangle A B C , A B = A C and ∠ B A C = 1 0 0 ∘ . If A B is extended to D such that A D = B C , find ∠ B C D (in degrees).
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Elegant solution. Best out of all...
My first answer of -10was actually correct! The diagram is in error-since the angle A is obtuse, the constructed line DC will be inside AB and the angle will be negative.
how did you get from DF = 20 (line 10) to angleDGF = 10 ? Also, do you mean CG perp DE (line 6)
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Because angle subtended by a chord at the center is twice the angle subtend by the same chord the the circle. The chord DF subtends and angle of 20 at the center so the angle subtended by the chord DF at the circumference is 10.
How do we know that AFG is equilateral and BCGF is a rectangle?
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You're right. I should have constructed first the AFG equilateral, and from there prove that BCGF is rectangle. All marked angles came from the equilateral.
unnecessarily difficult
Equality AD = BC is not justified
A wonderful demonstration that make wonderful the problem, too.
We construct equilateral Δ A E C as shown in the picture. After that, we have E A = E D = E D . We can easily prove Δ A E D = Δ A B C and thus ∠ A E D = 1 0 0 o . That means ∠ D E C = 1 6 0 o . Because E D = E C , ∠ D C E must be 1 0 o . Now we have ∠ A C B + ∠ B C D + ∠ D C E = ∠ A C E = 6 0 o , that means ∠ B C D = 1 0 o
the same as what I did
But how do you know that DE=EA? I don't understood.
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AEC is equilateral triangle. Thus angle DAE=100-60=40 degree.
Also AD = BC, and AE=AC=AB, so Triangle ABC and EAD are the same. Thus DE=EA.
Me too!!!!!
where is the pic
Let
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B
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A
C
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B
C
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y
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x
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∠
B
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θ
[all angles are measured in
degrees
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In
Δ
A
B
C
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s
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4
0
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x
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s
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n
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1
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0
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y
⟹
x
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y
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1
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s
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4
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)
In Δ B C D , s i n ( θ ) y − x = s i n ( 4 0 − θ ) y ⟹ s i n ( θ ) 1 − s i n ( 1 0 0 ) s i n ( 4 0 ) = s i n ( 4 0 − θ ) 1 ⟹ s i n ( 1 0 0 ) s i n ( 1 0 0 ) − s i n ( 4 0 ) = s i n ( 4 0 − θ ) s i n ( θ ) ⟹ s i n ( 1 0 0 ) c o s ( 7 0 ) = s i n ( 4 0 − θ ) s i n ( θ )
Using componendo-dividendo, we get s i n ( 4 0 − θ ) − s i n ( θ ) s i n ( 4 0 − θ ) + s i n ( θ ) = s i n ( 1 0 0 ) − s i n ( 2 0 ) s i n ( 1 0 0 ) + s i n ( 2 0 ) Solving, we get t a n ( 2 0 − θ ) = t a n ( 6 0 ) t a n ( 4 0 ) t a n ( 2 0 ) ⟹ θ = 1 0
Hey, I dindn't understand the part after you used compenendo-dividendo. PLEASE HELP.
Hello. Could you tell me what formula you have used over here? Sine formula?
Elegant!!! Without the use of any sort of construction.
Sorry.. could not follow where have you processed the value sin(30)=1/2 ... Can you please explain?
@Maharnab Mitra How do you know BD=y-x ???
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AB = AC = x, AD = BC =y, So, BD = AD - AB = y -x
In triangle BCD, angles BCD + BDC will be equal to 40 degrees and DBC is 140 degrees so possible numerical values and combinations will be (BCD+BDC=40 degrees) combiantions are 20,20 not possible 10,30 can be a possible combination. now angle ACD= 40+10=50 angle BDC=30 degrees so in triangle ADC, angles ADC(30)+ACD(50) and angle DAC(100) sum up to 180
Solved easily!! without going into further calculations.
That doesn't explain why the angle must be 10, as opposed to anything else.
why not 8 and 22 or 7 and 23...or anything else?
how can angle BCD be equal to 10?? no proof??
Construct point E such that △ A E D ≅ △ B A C and A E cuts △ A B C into 2 pieces. We have m ∠ D A E = 4 0 ° because base angles are congruent in an isosceles triangle, so m ∠ E A C = 6 0 ° . Because A E ≡ A C , △ A E C is equilateral. Therefore, E C ≡ A E ≡ E D . Therefore, △ D E C is isosceles.
m ∠ D E C = m ∠ D E A + m ∠ A E C = 1 0 0 ° + 6 0 ° = 1 6 0 ° . Therefore, m ∠ E C D = 2 1 8 0 ° − 1 6 0 ° = 1 0 ° . m ∠ B C D = m ∠ A C E − m ∠ A C B − m ∠ E C D = 6 0 ° − 4 0 ° − 1 0 ° = 1 0 ° .
Mark, When you assumed triangle AED congruent to triangle BAC, u practically assumed that angle ADE is 40, which means BCD as 10. Then what remains there to prove?
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I constructed point E such that those two triangles are congruent. I know this point exists because it is stated that AD=BC. I draw lines from A and D such that the angles are 40 and 40, so by ASA the triangles are congruent.
I know that the angles are 40 and 40 because triangle ABC is isosceles with an apex angle of 100.
I am also looking for a solution that goes like this: Construct point E on A D such that D E ≅ A B . Then C D bisects ∠ B C E for some reason. An example of a possible reason is the angle bisector theorem.
Wow, this is the best solution. Understood everything. Thanks for the magical idea of constructing congruent triangles!
put Ac=x,Ad=Bc=y,DC=z&angle (bcd)=t,from geometry of triangle, cos40=y^2+x2-x^2\2xy,y=2x.cos40&cos100=x^2+4x^2cos^2(40)-z^2 \2x.2x.cos40 so 4cos100.cos40=1+4cos^2(40)-4cos100.cos40-z^2\x^2. z^2=3.879385x^2,z=1.9696154447.x ,,cos(t+40)=z^2+x^2-y^2(2zx)=3.879385x^2+x^2-4cos^2(40)(2×1.9696514447x.x)=.6247877 so t+40=50 ,t=10°#####
What do you mean?
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Given the information I suspected an auxiliar construction of an isosceles triangle with sides A D or B C . After some exploration I found an interesting equilateral triangle and the solution came easily as follows.
The figure shows the construction. Draw a circle with center A and raduis A D . Extend A C to E . Then △ A B C and △ A D E are similar and B C ∣ ∣ D E .
Now let F , G in the circle such that B F ⊥ D E and C F ⊥ D E .
Is easy to show that △ A F G is equilateral and B C G F is a rectangle.
Now ∠ A E D = 4 0 and D G ⌢ = 8 0 . Therefore ∠ D E G = 4 0 . D E is perpendicular bisector of C G and B F .
On the other hand D F ⌢ = 2 0 , then ∠ D G F = 1 0 . And because △ D G C is isosceles we conclude ∠ B C D = 1 0 .