A geometry problem by Stalin Sahoo

Geometry Level 3

In triangle A B C , ABC, A B = A C AB = AC and B A C = 10 0 . \angle BAC = 100^\circ. If A B \overline{AB} is extended to D D such that A D = B C , AD=BC, find B C D \angle BCD (in degrees).


The answer is 10.

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7 solutions

Ray Flores
Jun 3, 2014

Given the information I suspected an auxiliar construction of an isosceles triangle with sides A D AD or B C BC . After some exploration I found an interesting equilateral triangle and the solution came easily as follows.

The figure shows the construction. Draw a circle with center A A and raduis A D AD . Extend A C AC to E E . Then A B C \triangle ABC and A D E \triangle ADE are similar and B C D E BC||DE .

Now let F , G F,G in the circle such that B F D E BF\perp DE and C F D E CF\perp DE .

Is easy to show that A F G \triangle AFG is equilateral and B C G F BCGF is a rectangle.

Now A E D = 40 \angle AED=40 and D G = 80 \overset{\frown}{DG}=80 . Therefore D E G = 40 \angle DEG=40 . D E DE is perpendicular bisector of C G CG and B F BF .

On the other hand D F = 20 \overset{\frown}{DF}=20 , then D G F = 10 \angle DGF=10 . And because D G C \triangle DGC is isosceles we conclude B C D = 10 \angle BCD=10 .

HiddenTriangle HiddenTriangle

Elegant solution. Best out of all...

Nishant Sharma - 6 years, 11 months ago

My first answer of -10was actually correct! The diagram is in error-since the angle A is obtuse, the constructed line DC will be inside AB and the angle will be negative.

Richard Chester-Browne - 5 years, 6 months ago

how did you get from DF = 20 (line 10) to angleDGF = 10 ? Also, do you mean CG perp DE (line 6)

Remus Lupin - 5 years, 5 months ago

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Because angle subtended by a chord at the center is twice the angle subtend by the same chord the the circle. The chord DF subtends and angle of 20 at the center so the angle subtended by the chord DF at the circumference is 10.

Ramasamy Kandasamy - 5 years, 3 months ago

How do we know that AFG is equilateral and BCGF is a rectangle?

Pil Pinas - 4 years, 6 months ago

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You're right. I should have constructed first the AFG equilateral, and from there prove that BCGF is rectangle. All marked angles came from the equilateral.

Ray Flores - 4 years, 3 months ago

unnecessarily difficult

Equality AD = BC is not justified

Angel Raygoza - 1 year, 1 month ago

A wonderful demonstration that make wonderful the problem, too.

Lu Ca - 7 months ago
Nam Diện Lĩnh
Jun 16, 2014

We construct equilateral Δ A E C \Delta AEC as shown in the picture. After that, we have E A = E D = E D EA=ED=ED . We can easily prove Δ A E D = Δ A B C \Delta AED=\Delta ABC and thus A E D = 10 0 o \angle AED=100^o . That means D E C = 16 0 o \angle DEC=160^o . Because E D = E C ED=EC , D C E \angle DCE must be 1 0 o 10^o . Now we have A C B + B C D + D C E = A C E = 6 0 o \angle ACB+\angle BCD+\angle DCE=\angle ACE=60^o , that means B C D = 1 0 o \angle BCD=10^o

the same as what I did

Daryll RomuaLdez - 6 years, 9 months ago

But how do you know that DE=EA? I don't understood.

Giuseppe Lanna - 5 years, 6 months ago

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AEC is equilateral triangle. Thus angle DAE=100-60=40 degree.

Also AD = BC, and AE=AC=AB, so Triangle ABC and EAD are the same. Thus DE=EA.

Richard Wong - 5 years, 5 months ago

Me too!!!!!

Prayas Rautray - 3 years, 11 months ago

where is the pic

Jeff Lo - 2 years, 2 months ago
Maharnab Mitra
Jun 2, 2014

Let A B = A C = x , AB=AC=x, B C = y BC=y and B D = y x . BD=y-x. B C D = θ \angle BCD = \theta [all angles are measured in degrees ] In Δ A B C , \Delta ABC, x s i n ( 40 ) = y s i n ( 100 ) x = y s i n ( 40 ) s i n ( 100 ) \frac{x}{sin(40)} = \frac{y}{sin(100)} \implies x=y \frac{sin(40)}{sin(100)}

In Δ B C D , \Delta BCD, y x s i n ( θ ) = y s i n ( 40 θ ) 1 s i n ( 40 ) s i n ( 100 ) s i n ( θ ) = 1 s i n ( 40 θ ) \frac{y-x}{sin( \theta)} = \frac{y}{sin(40- \theta)} \implies \frac{1- \frac{sin(40)}{sin(100)}}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{1}{sin(40- \theta)} s i n ( 100 ) s i n ( 40 ) s i n ( 100 ) = s i n ( θ ) s i n ( 40 θ ) \implies \frac{sin(100)-sin(40)}{sin(100)}= \frac{sin(\theta)}{sin(40- \theta)} c o s ( 70 ) s i n ( 100 ) = s i n ( θ ) s i n ( 40 θ ) \implies \frac{cos(70)}{sin(100)} =\frac{sin(\theta)}{sin(40- \theta)}

Using componendo-dividendo, we get s i n ( 40 θ ) + s i n ( θ ) s i n ( 40 θ ) s i n ( θ ) = s i n ( 100 ) + s i n ( 20 ) s i n ( 100 ) s i n ( 20 ) \frac{sin(40- \theta)+ sin (\theta)}{sin(40- \theta)- sin (\theta)} = \frac{sin(100)+sin(20)}{sin(100)-sin(20)} Solving, we get t a n ( 20 θ ) = t a n ( 40 ) t a n ( 20 ) t a n ( 60 ) θ = 10 tan(20- \theta) = \frac{tan(40) tan(20)}{tan(60)} \implies \theta = \boxed{10}

Hey, I dindn't understand the part after you used compenendo-dividendo. PLEASE HELP.

Shishir Shahi - 3 years, 10 months ago

Hello. Could you tell me what formula you have used over here? Sine formula?

Jayakumar Krishnan - 7 years ago

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Yes! I used a s i n A = b s i n B = c s i n C \frac{a}{sinA}=\frac{b}{sinB}=\frac{c}{sinC}

Maharnab Mitra - 7 years ago

Elegant!!! Without the use of any sort of construction.

Prayas Rautray - 3 years, 11 months ago

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But please elucidate the last step.

Prayas Rautray - 3 years, 11 months ago

Sorry.. could not follow where have you processed the value sin(30)=1/2 ... Can you please explain?

Ananya Aaniya - 5 years ago

@Maharnab Mitra How do you know BD=y-x ???

Stephen Thajeb - 4 years, 6 months ago

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AB = AC = x, AD = BC =y, So, BD = AD - AB = y -x

Maharnab Mitra - 4 years, 6 months ago
Souvik Pal
Jun 4, 2014

In triangle BCD, angles BCD + BDC will be equal to 40 degrees and DBC is 140 degrees so possible numerical values and combinations will be (BCD+BDC=40 degrees) combiantions are 20,20 not possible 10,30 can be a possible combination. now angle ACD= 40+10=50 angle BDC=30 degrees so in triangle ADC, angles ADC(30)+ACD(50) and angle DAC(100) sum up to 180

Solved easily!! without going into further calculations.

That doesn't explain why the angle must be 10, as opposed to anything else.

Calvin Lin Staff - 7 years ago

why not 8 and 22 or 7 and 23...or anything else?

Sahil Gohan - 7 years ago

how can angle BCD be equal to 10?? no proof??

Manasa Kanade - 6 years, 10 months ago
Mark Kong
Jun 4, 2014

Construct point E E such that A E D B A C \triangle AED \cong \triangle BAC and A E \overleftrightarrow { AE } cuts A B C \triangle ABC into 2 pieces. We have m D A E = 40 ° m\angle DAE = 40° because base angles are congruent in an isosceles triangle, so m E A C = 60 ° m\angle EAC = 60° . Because A E A C \overline { AE } \equiv \overline { AC } , A E C \triangle AEC is equilateral. Therefore, E C A E E D \overline { EC } \equiv \overline { AE }\equiv \overline {ED} . Therefore, D E C \triangle DEC is isosceles.

m D E C = m D E A + m A E C = 100 ° + 60 ° = 160 ° m\angle DEC=m\angle DEA+m\angle AEC=100°+60°=160° . Therefore, m E C D = 180 ° 160 ° 2 = 10 ° m\angle ECD=\frac{180°-160°}{2}=10° . m B C D = m A C E m A C B m E C D = 60 ° 40 ° 10 ° = 10 ° m\angle BCD = m\angle ACE - m\angle ACB - m\angle ECD = 60°-40°-10°=10° .

Mark, When you assumed triangle AED congruent to triangle BAC, u practically assumed that angle ADE is 40, which means BCD as 10. Then what remains there to prove?

Deepali Rawat - 7 years ago

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I constructed point E such that those two triangles are congruent. I know this point exists because it is stated that AD=BC. I draw lines from A and D such that the angles are 40 and 40, so by ASA the triangles are congruent.

I know that the angles are 40 and 40 because triangle ABC is isosceles with an apex angle of 100.

Mark Kong - 7 years ago

I am also looking for a solution that goes like this: Construct point E E on A D \overrightarrow { AD } such that D E A B \overline{DE} \cong \overline{AB} . Then C D \overline {CD} bisects B C E \angle BCE for some reason. An example of a possible reason is the angle bisector theorem.

Mark Kong - 7 years ago

Wow, this is the best solution. Understood everything. Thanks for the magical idea of constructing congruent triangles!

Pil Pinas - 4 years, 6 months ago
Gacon Noname
Jun 4, 2014

check the link to see my solution picture link

Amed Lolo
Jan 12, 2016

put Ac=x,Ad=Bc=y,DC=z&angle (bcd)=t,from geometry of triangle, cos40=y^2+x2-x^2\2xy,y=2x.cos40&cos100=x^2+4x^2cos^2(40)-z^2 \2x.2x.cos40 so 4cos100.cos40=1+4cos^2(40)-4cos100.cos40-z^2\x^2. z^2=3.879385x^2,z=1.9696154447.x ,,cos(t+40)=z^2+x^2-y^2(2zx)=3.879385x^2+x^2-4cos^2(40)(2×1.9696514447x.x)=.6247877 so t+40=50 ,t=10°#####

What do you mean?

Shishir Shahi - 3 years, 10 months ago

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