A series inspired by Satyajit

Calculus Level 5

S = 2 3 × 4 + 2 × 4 3 × 5 × 6 + 2 × 4 × 6 3 × 5 × 7 × 8 + \large{S = \frac{2}{3\times 4}+\frac{2 \times 4}{3\times 5 \times 6}+\frac{2\times 4 \times 6}{3\times 5\times 7\times 8}+ \ldots}

If S S can be expressed as π A B C D \dfrac{\pi^{A}}{B}-\dfrac{C}{D} where A , B , C , D A,B,C,D are positive integers with C C and D D as coprime positive integers, evaluate A × B × C × D A\times B\times C\times D .


Inspiration .


The answer is 32.

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2 solutions

Tanishq Varshney
Sep 19, 2015

If u have a different solution to it, plz do post.

As mentioned that this problem is inspired by @Satyajit Mohanty

( arcsin x ) 2 = n = 0 2 2 n ( n ! ) 2 ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ( n + 1 ) x 2 n + 2 \large{(\arcsin x)^2=\displaystyle \sum^{\infty}_{n=0} \frac{2^{2n} (n!)^{2}}{(2n+1)! (n+1)} x^{2n+2}} ................... ( ) (*)

The given series n t h nth term is

Note that . . means × \times

T n = 2.4.6........2 n 3.5.7.... ( 2 n + 1 ) ( 2 n + 2 ) \large{T_{n}=\frac{2.4.6........2n}{3.5.7....(2n+1)(2n+2)}}

n = 1 T n = n = 1 2 2 n ( n ! ) 2 ( 2 n + 2 ) ! \large{\displaystyle \sum^{\infty}_{n=1}T_{n}=\displaystyle \sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \frac{2^{2n} (n!)^{2}}{(2n+2)!}}

On rearranging ( ) (*) and replacing x x by 1 ) 1)

1 2 ( arcsin 1 ) 2 = n = 0 2 2 n ( n ! ) 2 ( 2 n + 2 ) ! \large{\frac{1}{2}(\arcsin 1)^2=\displaystyle \sum^{\infty}_{n=0} \frac{2^{2n} (n!)^{2}}{(2n+2)!}}

1 2 ( arcsin 1 ) 2 = 1 2 + n = 1 2 2 n ( n ! ) 2 ( 2 n + 2 ) ! \large{\frac{1}{2}(\arcsin 1)^2=\frac{1}{2}+\displaystyle \sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \frac{2^{2n} (n!)^{2}}{(2n+2)!}}

Thus

n = 1 2 2 n ( n ! ) 2 ( 2 n + 2 ) ! = π 2 8 1 2 \large{\displaystyle \sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \frac{2^{2n} (n!)^{2}}{(2n+2)!}=\frac{\pi^{2}}{8}-\frac{1}{2}}

Can you mention from which problem you got inspired? Is it this - Combinatorial Summation ?

Satyajit Mohanty - 5 years, 8 months ago

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yeah! i'll mention it

Tanishq Varshney - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Nicely framed the problem.

Satyajit Mohanty - 5 years, 8 months ago
Kartik Sharma
Sep 19, 2015

I have a different solution, actually not much different.

It is for those who don't know that s i n 1 ( x ) 2 {{sin}^{-1}(x)}^{2} series(including me).

So,

T = n = 1 ( 2 n ) ! ! ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ! ( 2 n + 2 ) \displaystyle T = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{(2n)!!}{(2n+1)!!(2n+2)}} is our problem

Let

S ( x ) = n = 1 ( 2 n ) ! ! ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ! x n \displaystyle S(x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{(2n)!!}{(2n+1)!!} x^n}

S ( x ) = n = 1 2 2 n n ! 2 ( 2 n + 1 ) ! x n \displaystyle S(x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{{2}^{2n} n!^2}{(2n+1)!} x^n}

S ( x ) = n = 1 Γ ( n + 1 ) Γ ( n + 1 ) Γ ( 2 n + 1 ) 4 x n \displaystyle S(x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{\Gamma(n+1)\Gamma(n+1)}{\Gamma(2n+1)} {4x}^{n}}

Beta function, aha?

S ( x ) = n = 1 B ( n , n ) 4 x n \displaystyle S(x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\text{B}(n,n) {4x}^{n}}

S ( x ) = n = 1 0 1 t n ( 1 t ) n d t 4 x n \displaystyle S(x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\int_{0}^{1}{t^n{(1-t)}^{n} \ dt} {4x}^{n}}

S ( x ) = 0 1 4 x t ( 1 t ) 1 4 x t ( 1 t ) d t \displaystyle S(x) = \int_{0}^{1}{\frac{4xt(1-t)}{1-4xt(1-t)} \ dt}

S ( x ) = 0 1 d t 4 x t 2 4 x t + 1 1 \displaystyle S(x) = \int_{0}^{1}{\frac{dt}{4xt^2 - 4xt + 1}} - 1

S ( x ) = t a n 1 ( x x x 2 ) x x 2 1 \displaystyle S(x) = \frac{{tan}^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\right)}{\sqrt{x-x^2}} - 1 [I'd not be giving details how to solve that integral. Probably that's what they say "Left as an exercise for the reader!"]

2 T = 0 1 S ( x ) d x \displaystyle 2T = \int_{0}^{1}{S(x) \ dx} , Right?

T = 1 2 0 1 tan 1 ( x x x 2 ) x x 2 1 d x \displaystyle T = \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{1}{\frac{{\tan}^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\right)}{\sqrt{x-x^2}} - 1 \ dx}

T = 1 2 0 1 tan 1 ( x x x 2 ) x x 2 d x 1 2 \displaystyle T = \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{1}{\frac{{\tan}^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\right)}{\sqrt{x-x^2}} \ dx} - \frac{1}{2}

Well, as I am lazy enough to not provide a solution to this integral as well, it is again left as an exercise for the reader :P(so many exercises! Well, I may give solutions later if required but these are elementary, I think exercise would be fine.)

Computation shows that it evaluates to

T = π 2 8 1 2 \displaystyle T = \frac{\pi^2}{8} - \frac{1}{2}

Probably that may be seen as a proof of the series Tanishq has given.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Nice problem BTW!

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

Brilliantly done

Tanishq Varshney - 5 years, 8 months ago

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