A sliding conductor reloaded

A horizontal conducting rod of mass m m and length L L is free to slide on two smooth vertical conducting rails as shown, where there is a magnetic field of intensity B B directed inside the screen and the resistance of the resistor is R R .

The rod is given an initial velocity v 0 v_0 upwards. Find the greatest height h h that it will attain before falling down. Consider the initial position of the rod as h = 0 h=0 .

None of these 0 0 \infty m R B 2 L 2 [ v 0 m g r B 2 L 2 ln ( B 2 L 2 v 0 + m g R m g R ) ] \dfrac{mR}{B^2L^2}\left[v_0-\dfrac{mgr}{B^2L^2}\ln\left(\dfrac{B^2L^2v_0+mgR}{mgR}\right)\right] m R B 2 L 2 ln ( B 2 L 2 v 0 + m g R m g R ) \dfrac{mR}{B^2L^2}\ln\left(\dfrac{B^2L^2v_0+mgR}{mgR}\right) m R B 2 L 2 [ v 0 + m g r B 2 L 2 ln ( B 2 L 2 v 0 + m g R m g R ) ] \dfrac{mR}{B^2L^2}\left[v_0+\dfrac{mgr}{B^2L^2}\ln\left(\dfrac{B^2L^2v_0+mgR}{mgR}\right)\right] m R B 2 L 2 v 0 \dfrac{mR}{B^2L^2}v_0

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2 solutions

Let v v be the velocity at any point of the movement of the rod. We see that the induced emf is ϵ = B L v \epsilon=BLv . Then, the current is I = ϵ R = B L v R I=\dfrac{\epsilon}{R}=\dfrac{BLv}{R} and the magnetic force, which goes downwards, has a magnitude of F m = I L B = B 2 L 2 v R F_m=ILB=\dfrac{B^2L^2v}{R} .

Let a a be the acceleration at any point, which will have a direction upwards. So, we have F m m g = m a -F_m-mg=ma :

B 2 L 2 v m g R = m R a -B^2L^2v-mgR=mRa

We know that a = d v d t a=\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dt} and v = d h d t v=\dfrac{\mathrm dh}{\mathrm dt} , hence a = v d v d h a=\dfrac{v\;\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dh} and:

( B 2 L 2 v + m g R ) = m R v d v d h -(B^2L^2v+mgR)=mRv\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dh}

Separate the variables:

m R v d v B 2 L 2 v + m g R = d h -mR\dfrac{v\;\mathrm dv}{B^2L^2v+mgR}=dh

The greatest height will be attained when v = 0 v=0 , so we know the limits of integration.

Use the identity a x b x + c = a b ( 1 c b x + c ) \dfrac{ax}{bx+c}=\dfrac{a}{b}\left(1-\dfrac{c}{bx+c}\right) , so we can integrate that:

m R B 2 L 2 v 0 0 ( 1 m g R B 2 L 2 v + m g R ) d v = 0 h m a x d h \displaystyle -\dfrac{mR}{B^2L^2}\int_{v_0}^{0} \left(1-\dfrac{mgR}{B^2L^2v+mgR}\right)\mathrm dv=\int_{0}^{h_{max}}\mathrm dh

m R B 2 L 2 [ 0 v 0 m g R B 2 L 2 ln ( B 2 L 2 ( 0 ) + m g R B 2 L 2 v 0 + m g R ) ] = h m a x -\dfrac{mR}{B^2L^2}\left[0-v_0-\dfrac{mgR}{B^2L^2}\ln\left(\dfrac{B^2L^2(0)+mgR}{B^2L^2v_0+mgR}\right)\right]=h_{max}

h m a x = m R B 2 L 2 [ v 0 m g R B 2 L 2 ln ( B 2 L 2 v 0 + m g R m g R ) ] h_{max}=\boxed{\dfrac{mR}{B^2L^2}\left[v_0-\dfrac{mgR}{B^2L^2}\ln\left(\dfrac{B^2L^2v_0+mgR}{mgR}\right)\right]}

Ayon Ghosh
Jan 25, 2018

Facepalm !! : ( :-( Because I didnt think of using a = v d v d h a = v \dfrac{dv}{dh} instead just found the time and put it into the height expression. Had to integrate TWICE once for velocity then again for distance. Wasted 2 pages of my book.

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