A Sum of Factorials as a Power of 2

a ! + b ! + c ! = 2 d ! \large a! + b! + c! = 2^{d!}

Find the number of ordered positive integer solutions ( a , b , c , d ) (a,b,c,d) to the above expression.


The answer is 3.

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2 solutions

Mark Hennings
Jan 31, 2017

Since 2 d ! 3 2^{d!} \ge 3 , we have d 2 d \ge 2 . Start by assuming that a b c a \ge b \ge c . Since c ! c! divides a ! + b ! + c ! a! + b! + c! , it divides 2 d ! 2^{d!} , and hence c 2 c \le 2 .

If c = 1 c=1 then a ! + b ! = 2 d ! 1 a!+b!=2^{d!}-1 is odd, so b = 1 b=1 . Thus a ! = 2 d ! 2 a! = 2^{d!}-2 , and so the index of 2 2 in a ! a! is 1 1 . Thus a = 2 , 3 a = 2,3 . It is easy to check that a = 2 a=2 yields d = 2 d=2 , and that a = 3 a=3 is impossible.

If c = 2 c=2 then a ! + b ! = 2 d ! 2 a!+b! = 2^{d!}-2 and b ! b! divides a ! + b ! a!+b! , and hence the index of 2 2 in b ! b! is at most 1 1 , and so b = 2 , 3 b=2,3 .

  • If b = 2 b=2 then a ! = 4 ( 2 d ! 2 1 ) a! = 4(2^{d!-2}-1) , so the index of 2 2 in a ! a! is 2 2 , which is impossible.
  • If b = 3 b=3 then a ! = 8 ( 2 d ! 3 1 ) a! = 8(2^{d!-3}-1) , so the index of 2 2 in a ! a! is 3 3 , so that a = 4 , 5 a=4,5 . It is easy to check that neither of these is possible.

Thus the only (ordered) solutions are ( 2 , 1 , 1 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 2 , 1 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 1 , 2 , 2 ) (2,1,1,2),(1,2,1,2),(1,1,2,2) , making 3 \boxed{3} solutions altogether.

Great solution! +1

Sharky Kesa - 4 years, 4 months ago
Sharky Kesa
Jan 30, 2017

Firstly, since a ! 1 a!\geq 1 , we must have a ! + b ! + c ! 3 a! + b! + c! \geq 3 , so d ! 2 d! \geq 2 . Thus, the RHS 1 ( m o d 3 ) \equiv 1 \pmod{3} .

All unordered triples of residues that have a sum equivalent to 1 mod 3 are ( 0 , 0 , 1 ) , ( 0 , 2 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 1 , 2 ) (0,0,1), (0,2,2), (1,1,2) . (These will be the residues of a ! a! , b ! b! and c ! c! in mod 3.)

Case 1: ( a ! , b ! , c ! ) ( 0 , 0 , 1 ) ( m o d 3 ) (a!,b!,c!)\equiv (0,0,1) \pmod{3}

In this case, WLOG a ! b ! 0 a , b 3 a!\equiv b! \equiv 0 \implies a,b \geq 3 , c ! 1 c = 1 c! \equiv 1 \implies c=1 . However, a ! a! and b ! b! are even, and c ! = 1 c!=1 is odd, so the LHS would be odd. This is impossible, so there are no solutions in this case.

Case 2: ( a ! , b ! , c ! ) ( 0 , 2 , 2 ) ( m o d 3 ) (a!,b!,c!)\equiv (0,2,2) \pmod{3}

In this case, WLOG a ! 0 a! \equiv 0 , b ! c ! 2 b = c = 2 b! \equiv c! \equiv 2 \implies b=c=2 . From this, we get

a ! + 4 = 2 d ! a! + 4 = 2^{d!}

If a = 3 a=3 , we get 2 d ! = 10 2^{d!} = 10 , which is impossible. Therefore, a 4 a \geq 4 , so 8 a ! 8 \mid a! .

If d = 2 d=2 , we get 2 2 = 4 + a ! 2^2 = 4 + a! , so a ! = 0 a!=0 , which is impossible. Therefore, d 3 d \geq 3 , so 8 2 d ! 8 \mid 2^{d!} .

Notice that the LHS is divisible by 4, but not by 8, whereas the RHS is divisible by 8. Thus, there are no solutions in this case.

Case 3: ( a ! , b ! , c ! ) ( 1 , 1 , 2 ) ( m o d 3 ) (a!,b!,c!)\equiv (1,1,2) \pmod{3}

From this, we get a = 1 a=1 , b = 1 b=1 and c = 2 c=2 , which we find satisfies, giving d = 2 d=2 . Therefore, our solutions are ( 2 , 1 , 1 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 2 , 1 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 1 , 2 , 2 ) (2,1,1,2), (1,2,1,2), (1,1,2,2) , so there are 3 solutions.

@Sharky Kesa Please mention that the variables can take equal values or they need not be different. Thanx

Achal Jain - 4 years, 4 months ago

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Why would I need to say that? It isn't a cryptarithm.

Sharky Kesa - 4 years, 4 months ago

Why is R H S 1 p m o d 3 RHS\equiv1pmod{3}

Harry Jones - 4 years, 4 months ago

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If d ! 2 d! \geq 2 , it must be that d ! d! is even. Thus, the RHS is a power of 4. Evaluating in ( m o d 3 ) \pmod{3} gives us the result.

Sharky Kesa - 4 years, 4 months ago

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