a ! + b ! + c ! = 2 d !
Find the number of ordered positive integer solutions ( a , b , c , d ) to the above expression.
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Great solution! +1
Firstly, since a ! ≥ 1 , we must have a ! + b ! + c ! ≥ 3 , so d ! ≥ 2 . Thus, the RHS ≡ 1 ( m o d 3 ) .
All unordered triples of residues that have a sum equivalent to 1 mod 3 are ( 0 , 0 , 1 ) , ( 0 , 2 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 1 , 2 ) . (These will be the residues of a ! , b ! and c ! in mod 3.)
Case 1: ( a ! , b ! , c ! ) ≡ ( 0 , 0 , 1 ) ( m o d 3 )
In this case, WLOG a ! ≡ b ! ≡ 0 ⟹ a , b ≥ 3 , c ! ≡ 1 ⟹ c = 1 . However, a ! and b ! are even, and c ! = 1 is odd, so the LHS would be odd. This is impossible, so there are no solutions in this case.
Case 2: ( a ! , b ! , c ! ) ≡ ( 0 , 2 , 2 ) ( m o d 3 )
In this case, WLOG a ! ≡ 0 , b ! ≡ c ! ≡ 2 ⟹ b = c = 2 . From this, we get
a ! + 4 = 2 d !
If a = 3 , we get 2 d ! = 1 0 , which is impossible. Therefore, a ≥ 4 , so 8 ∣ a ! .
If d = 2 , we get 2 2 = 4 + a ! , so a ! = 0 , which is impossible. Therefore, d ≥ 3 , so 8 ∣ 2 d ! .
Notice that the LHS is divisible by 4, but not by 8, whereas the RHS is divisible by 8. Thus, there are no solutions in this case.
Case 3: ( a ! , b ! , c ! ) ≡ ( 1 , 1 , 2 ) ( m o d 3 )
From this, we get a = 1 , b = 1 and c = 2 , which we find satisfies, giving d = 2 . Therefore, our solutions are ( 2 , 1 , 1 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 2 , 1 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 1 , 2 , 2 ) , so there are 3 solutions.
@Sharky Kesa Please mention that the variables can take equal values or they need not be different. Thanx
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Why would I need to say that? It isn't a cryptarithm.
Why is R H S ≡ 1 p m o d 3
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If d ! ≥ 2 , it must be that d ! is even. Thus, the RHS is a power of 4. Evaluating in ( m o d 3 ) gives us the result.
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Since 2 d ! ≥ 3 , we have d ≥ 2 . Start by assuming that a ≥ b ≥ c . Since c ! divides a ! + b ! + c ! , it divides 2 d ! , and hence c ≤ 2 .
If c = 1 then a ! + b ! = 2 d ! − 1 is odd, so b = 1 . Thus a ! = 2 d ! − 2 , and so the index of 2 in a ! is 1 . Thus a = 2 , 3 . It is easy to check that a = 2 yields d = 2 , and that a = 3 is impossible.
If c = 2 then a ! + b ! = 2 d ! − 2 and b ! divides a ! + b ! , and hence the index of 2 in b ! is at most 1 , and so b = 2 , 3 .
Thus the only (ordered) solutions are ( 2 , 1 , 1 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 2 , 1 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 1 , 2 , 2 ) , making 3 solutions altogether.