K = ⎝ ⎛ i = 0 ∏ p 2 0 1 5 − 1 ( i p 2 0 1 5 − 1 ) ⎠ ⎞ ( m o d p )
Find K , given that p is a prime and is 1 mod 4 .
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There is another way using Lucas' Theorem
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I think I see what you mean after reading about it, the theorem makes the result easier by just decomposing each element of the product: ⎝ ⎛ i = 0 ∏ p k − 1 ( i p k − 1 ) ( m o d p ) ⎠ ⎞ = i = 0 ∏ p k − 1 ( j ≥ 0 ∏ ( i j p − 1 ) ( m o d p ) ) where i j is digit j in the base p expansion of i (associated with p j ). In this expansion, there are just repeated elements from the product for P 1 , and each one appears the same number of times. From there, the proof is the same since all are − 1 or 1 mod p .
Personally, I proved it the way I did because I was studying these patterns in Pascal's triangle and I noticed that this was a cool result you could get from them. :)
Wow! That's a nice solution .
By Lucas's Theorem, we have that each of the binomial coefficients is congruent to ( − 1 ) i modulo p.But taking the product, we get that the exponent is an even number (using that p is 1 mod 4).So their product is 1 mod p.
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This problem is really asking for the product of the numbers in a row of Pascal's triangle modulo p . For modulo p , I will use the following pattern as demonstrated by modulo 5:
I'll call each group of p k rows S k . It is true that the S k 's that compose S k + 1 are multiplied by their corresponding coefficients in the first p rows. (Meaning every element of them is multiplied by that coefficient). Let P k = ⎝ ⎛ i = 0 ∏ p k − 1 ( i p k − 1 ) ( m o d p ) ⎠ ⎞ Then we know that P k = P k − 1 p P 1 ( m o d p ) This is due to the pattern mentioned above: we have the product of the last row of S k − 1 p times, and each of these is multiplied by a corresponding element in the p t h row. P k is P 1 to some power in mod p .
Luckily, P 1 is 1 mod p if p is 1 mod 4 . This can be shown with the factorial expansion: P 1 = i = 0 ∏ p − 1 i ! ( p − 1 ) ( p − 2 ) . . . ( p − i ) This shows that every element is 1 or p − 1 mod p , and if p is 1 mod 4 then the number of odd i 's is even, so the entire expression is 1 mod p . Thus, all P k are 1 mod p with the given condition, so K = 1 .