S = π 3 e 4 π 5 e 6 π 7 e 8 π ⋯
Find the value of ⌊ 1 0 0 0 ∗ S ⌋ .
Clarification : The small numbers 3 , 4 , 5 , … indicate the n th roots and are not powers.
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
That was cool!
Log in to reply
Thanks. I think this was the weirdest question I've posted so far. :)
Damn ! Didn't notice that the powers of e started from 1/3 ; hence used sinh(1) instead of sinh(1)-1.
Argh, I used − sinh ( 1 ) − 1 rather than sinh ( 1 ) − 1 .
great solution!
it is one of the best problems i've seen......fantastic problem
@brian charlesworth it was wonderful example !!
Log in to reply
Thanks. This is one of my favorites of the questions I've posted. :)
My solution may not be impressive for mathematicians but I used the given information to the best.
repeated exponentiation give u the general term as
S^(n!) = pi^(Sum(1/2n!)) * e^(Sum(1/(2n+1)!) //n from 1 to infinity
I couldn't find the hyperbolic function-equivalent for days then I looked at the answer we need here, 1000*S
and after n=7, 1/2n! etc won't affect the Sum much which means that for 1000*S value you can just calculate Powers of pi and e upto n=8. i.e., 1/2! + 1/4! +.... +1/16! , similarly for e, 1/3! + 1/5! + 1/7! ...+1/17!
and calculate the approximate answer.
And Bingo!! It worked :)
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
We can rewrite S as
π 2 1 ∗ e 6 1 ∗ π 2 4 1 ∗ e 1 2 0 1 ∗ π 7 2 0 1 ∗ . . . . . . = π M ∗ e N
where M = k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 k ) ! 1 = cosh ( 1 ) − 1 and
N = k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 k + 1 ) ! 1 = sinh ( 1 ) − 1 .
(See here for a discussion of the Taylor series for hyperbolic functions.)
Thus S = π cosh ( 1 ) − 1 ∗ e sinh ( 1 ) − 1 = 2 . 2 1 8 6 1 2 1 . . . . . , and so ⌊ 1 0 0 0 ∗ S ⌋ = 2 2 1 8 .