∫ 0 3 π ( cos 3 ( 2 x ) tan 2 ( x ) + 2 sin ( 4 3 x ) + 1 9 2 cos ( 4 3 x ) + 4 cos ( x ) + 1 1 6 sin ( x ) ) d x = n ( ln ( n + 1 ) + 1 )
What is the value of n ?
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Very nice.
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Is this your intended approach? Or do you have something that is actually elegant?
Studly solution indeed, Pi Han!
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Split the integral into 3 integrals, and denote them as A , B , C , respectively. The latter two integrals can be expressed as ∫ c ⋅ f ( x ) f ′ ( x ) d x for some constant c . Using the property d x d ln ( f ( x ) ) = f ( x ) f ′ ( x ) . We can now evaluate B to be:
B = 9 2 ∫ 0 π / 3 2 sin ( 3 x / 4 ) + 1 cos ( 3 x / 4 ) d x = y = 3 x / 4 9 2 ⋅ 3 4 ⋅ ln ( 1 + 2 ) = 6 2 ln ( 1 + 2 )
Analogously, C = 4 ln ( 3 5 ) .
We are left to solve the most tedious integral, A . In the intermediate step below, we will be using the double angle formula, tan ( 2 X ) = cos ( 2 X ) sin ( 2 X ) = 1 − 2 sin 2 X 2 sin X cos X . A = ∫ 0 π / 3 cos 3 ( x / 2 ) tan 2 ( x ) d x = y = x / 2 2 ∫ 0 π / 6 ( 1 − 2 sin 2 y 2 sin y cos y ) 2 ⋅ cos 3 y 1 d y = 8 ∫ 0 π / 6 cos y sin 2 y ⋅ ( 1 − 2 sin 2 y ) 2 1 d y = z = sin y ∫ 0 1 / 2 1 − z 2 z 2 ⋅ ( 1 − 2 z 2 ) 2 8 d z . By partial fraction decomposition, the integrand in the last integral above is equal to 2 z 2 − 1 1 6 + ( 2 z 2 − 1 ) 2 8 + z + 1 4 − z − 1 4 . Going through all the tedious algebra, we get A = 4 + 4 ln 3 − 3 2 ln ( 3 + 2 2 ) .
Hence, the integral in question is equal to A + B + C = 4 ( ln 5 + 1 ) . The answer is 4 .