A Triple Summation

Calculus Level 5

Evaluate r = 3 n = 1 k = 1 ( n k ) r n + 1 \sum_{r=3}^{\infty}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{\binom{n}{k}}{r^{n+1}}


The answer is 1.

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1 solution

Mark Hennings
Jul 6, 2017

Using the Binomial Theorem, then summing GPs, then using the Method of Differences, r = 3 n = 1 k = 1 ( n k ) r n + 1 = r = 3 n = 1 2 n 1 r n + 1 = r = 3 { 2 r 2 1 2 r 1 r 2 1 1 r } = r = 3 ( 2 r ( r 2 ) 1 r ( r 1 ) ) = r = 3 1 ( r 1 ) ( r 2 ) = r = 1 1 r ( r + 1 ) = r = 1 ( 1 r 1 r + 1 ) = 1 \begin{aligned} \sum_{r=3}^\infty \sum_{n=1}^\infty \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\binom{n}{k}}{r^{n+1}} & = \sum_{r=3}^\infty \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{2^n-1}{r^{n+1}} \\ & = \sum_{r=3}^\infty \left\{ \frac{\frac{2}{r^2}}{1 - \frac{2}{r}} - \frac{\frac{1}{r^2}}{1 - \frac{1}{r}}\right\} \; = \; \sum_{r=3}^\infty \left(\frac{2}{r(r-2)} - \frac{1}{r(r-1)}\right) \\ & = \sum_{r=3}^\infty \frac{1}{(r-1)(r-2)} \; = \; \sum_{r=1}^\infty \frac{1}{r(r+1)} \; = \; \sum_{r=1}^\infty \left(\frac{1}{r} - \frac{1}{r+1}\right) \; = \; \boxed{1} \end{aligned}

I thin there is one problem .... In the first summation k k k should be varied from 1 to n n

Aakash Khandelwal - 3 years, 11 months ago

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The binomial coefficients are zero if k > n k >n .

Mark Hennings - 3 years, 11 months ago

@Mark Hennings I agree but statement made anything about aCb if b>a rather is meaningless than zero , I think. But as you say its zero I will take care of it.

Aakash Khandelwal - 3 years, 11 months ago

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Note that ( a b ) = a ! b ! ( a b ) ! = a ( a 1 ) ( a 2 ) ( a b + 1 ) b ! \binom{a}{b} \; = \; \frac{a!}{b! (a-b)!} \; = \; \frac{a(a-1)(a-2)\cdots (a-b+1)}{b!} for integers a , b a,b with 0 b a 0 \le b \le a .

The expression on the RHS of this formula makes sense for any real number a a and nonnegative integer b b , and so we can use this to define the generalised Binomial coefficients ( a b ) \binom{a}{b} for a R a \in \mathbb{R} and b Z b \in \mathbb{Z} with b 0 b \ge 0 . It is also clear, with this extended definition, that ( a b ) = 0 \binom{a}{b} = 0 whenever a , b a,b are integers with b > a 0 b > a \ge 0 .

These extended Binomial coefficients are very useful. For example, we can now write ( 1 + x ) α = n = 0 ( α n ) x n x < 1 (1 + x)^\alpha \; =\; \sum_{n=0}^\infty \binom{\alpha}{n} x^n \hspace{2cm} |x| < 1 for any real number α \alpha . If α \alpha is a positive integer, the infinite series collapses to the usual finite form of the Binomial Theorem. Otherwise we get the correct coefficients of the Maclaurin series...

Mark Hennings - 3 years, 11 months ago

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