A Uniform Distribution Trick

True or False?

We can pick a positive integer uniformly at random.

False True

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2 solutions

In order for the distribution to be uniform, we require that the probability p ( n ) p(n) of picking any given positive integer n n is constant, i.e., p ( n ) = k p(n) = k n N \forall n \in \mathbb{N} for some k [ 0 , 1 ] . k \in [0,1].

As for any distribution, these probabilities must add to 1. 1. But for any k > 0 k \gt 0 the sum of probabilities will be lim m m k = , \displaystyle \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} mk = \infty, and if k = 0 k = 0 then the sum will be lim m m × 0 = 0. \displaystyle \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} m \times 0 = 0. Thus there exists no such value k k to make this a valid distribution, and so we cannot pick a positive integer uniformly at random.

And what's 'm' here??

Yuki Kuriyama - 5 years, 9 months ago

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m m just represents the number of elements in the set under consideration, namely N . \mathbb{N}. I suppose I could have set m = m = \infty directly, but I just prefer to write it as a limit.

Brian Charlesworth - 5 years, 9 months ago
Michael Mendrin
Aug 30, 2015

Guy 1: "I've got a neat math trick. First, pick a positive integer!"
(...long time passes...)
Guy 2: "..wait! I'm not done writing it down"

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