A very expensive random number generator

Recently, Derek Jeter played in the 1 , 00 0 th 1,000^\text{th} game in which he has had two or more hits. If hits are randomly distributed, how many multi-hit games would we expect him to have by this point in his career?

Assumptions and details

  • He has played in 2,681 career games.
  • He has 4 at bats in each game he plays.
  • His batting average is 0.311 (number of hits divided by number of at bats).
  • You may want to read Baseball rules if you are not familiar with it.


The answer is 985.935.

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1 solution

Patrick Corn
Jul 11, 2014

Let p = 0.311 p = 0.311 . The probability of an 0-for-4 game is ( 1 p ) 4 (1-p)^4 . The probability of a 1-for-4 game is 4 p ( 1 p ) 3 4p(1-p)^3 . So he should have 2681 ( 1 ( 1 p ) 4 4 p ( 1 p ) 3 ) = 985.93 2681(1-(1-p)^4-4p(1-p)^3) = 985.93 multihit games.

I can't understand where did you get that probability

Hafizh Ahsan Permana - 6 years, 11 months ago

I interpreted the problem to mean that he had exactly 3335 hits across 10724 at-bats and that they were randomly distributed, and got an average of 986 multi-hit games through Monte Carlo methods. I guess the number of at bats is so large that it doesn't make statistical difference which method you use.

Daniel Ploch - 6 years, 10 months ago

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