The following diagram shows a block of mass m = 1 k g attached to two identical springs of natural length L = 1 meters and spring constants k = 1 N/m. The block is pulled along the + x -axis by a length of x = 3 meters; when it is released, the block moves with an acceleration x ¨ in the − x direction. Find the initial acceleration of the block and the time it takes to reach the origin x = 0 .
Enter your answer as t + a , where t is the time it takes for the block to reach the origin and a is the magnitude of the initial acceleration of the block.
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I agree with @Steven Chase . A nice problem indeed. Also posting my solution, which is a semi-analytical approach.
Consider the block at a general time instant t . Its kinetic energy is:
T = 2 1 m x ˙ 2
The system is symmetrical about the X-axis and the springs are identical. The potential energy of each spring is the same and the total potential energy of the system is therefore:
V = 2 ( 2 1 K ( x 2 + 1 − 1 ) 2 ) V = K ( x 2 + 1 − 1 ) 2
The total energy of the system is a constant which is equal to the initial potential energy of the system. Note that initially the particle is at x = 3 and is released from rest. This gives:
T + V = K ( 1 0 − 1 ) 2 ⟹ 2 1 m x ˙ 2 + K ( x 2 + 1 − 1 ) 2 = K ( 1 0 − 1 ) 2 ⟹ 2 1 x ˙ 2 + ( x 2 + 1 − 1 ) 2 = ( 1 0 − 1 ) 2 Re-arranging gives:
⟹ x ˙ = − 2 ( ( 1 0 − 1 ) 2 − ( x 2 + 1 − 1 ) 2 )
The additional negative sign is included to imply that as time progresses, x decreases.
Separating the variables and integrating gives the required time period:
∫ 0 3 2 ( ( 1 0 − 1 ) 2 − ( x 2 + 1 − 1 ) 2 ) d x = T ≈ 1 . 4 1 3 8
To find the initial acceleration, consider the energy conservation equation:
⟹ 2 1 x ˙ 2 + ( x 2 + 1 − 1 ) 2 = ( 1 0 − 1 ) 2
Differentiating the above with respect to time gives:
( x ¨ + 2 x ( 1 − x 2 + 1 1 ) ) x ˙ = 0
Since x ˙ cannot be zero, the term:
x ¨ + 2 x ( 1 − x 2 + 1 1 ) = 0
At the initial instant when the block is just released, the magnitude of the acceleration of the block is obtained by substituting x = 3 above, which gives:
∣ x ¨ ( 0 ) ∣ ≈ 4 . 1 0 2 6 3 3
The required answer is, therefore:
∣ x ¨ ( 0 ) ∣ + T ≈ 5 . 5 1 6 4
Very nice solution.
brilliant way to find the final time.
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Thank you. This approach applies to systems where energy is conserved.
Nice problem. Simulation code attached below (with comments)
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Thanks for solving!
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I will going to use the Newtonian model for finding out the forces acting on the block, so let's first draw a free body diagram for one of the springs:
Let's call the force the spring applies on the block directly F s . The vertical and horizontal components respectively are:
F y = F s sin ( θ ) and F x = F s cos ( θ )
The vertical component of the forces exerted by both springs are opposite in direction and cancel each other out.
Where cos ( θ ) = L 2 + x 2 L
A single spring's stretch is equal to L 2 + x 2 − L , so the force a single spring exerts on the block is k ( L 2 + x 2 − L )
So the force both springs exert on the object is m x ¨ = − 2 k x ( 1 − L 2 + x 2 1 )
Since the block is of unit mass, the initial acceleration is also − 2 k x ( 1 − L 2 + x 2 1 ) = 4 . 1 0 2 6 6 m/ s 2
@Karan Chatrath analytically found out the integral which gives the time it takes for the block to reach the origin by integrating x ˙ 1 over distance. He did it by using energy conservation.
Here is my numerical simulation which uses Explicit Euler numerical integration: