⌊ 1 % × 2 % × 3 % × ⋯ × 1 9 9 % × 2 0 0 % ⌋ = ?
Clarification: ⌊ ⋅ ⌋ denotes the floor function .
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By Stirling's approximation, 1 0 0 2 0 0 2 0 0 !
= 1 0 0 2 0 0 2 π ∗ 2 0 0 ( e 2 0 0 ) 2 0 0 = 2 0 π ( e 2 ) 2 0 0
Note that 2 < e < 3 so ( e 2 ) 2 0 0 will tend to 0.
2 0 π is relatively small and will not affect the value much, hence the floored expression is just 0 .
= ⌊ 1 % × 2 % × 3 % × ⋯ × 1 9 9 % × 2 0 0 % ⌋ = ⌊ 1 0 0 1 × 1 0 0 2 × 1 0 0 3 × ⋯ × 1 0 0 1 9 9 × 1 0 0 2 0 0 ⌋ = ⌊ 1 0 4 0 0 2 0 0 ! ⌋ = ⌊ 1 0 4 0 0 7 . 8 8 . . × 1 0 3 7 4 ⌋ Because denominator is greater than numerator.Hence, answer will be zero
Note : ⌊ x ⌋ = 0 ∀ x ∈ [ 0 , 1 )
Without evaluating 2 0 0 ! , how can we know that the numerator is smaller than the denominator?
How do you know that the Nr is lesser than the Dr?
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I have added the value of 200! for more clearity.
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Thanx a lot!But how did you calculate the value of 1 0 3 7 4 2 0 0 ! ?
Note that 1 0 4 0 0 = 1 0 0 2 0 0 . Then, observe that 2 0 0 ! = ⋯ × 9 9 × 1 0 0 × 1 0 1 ⋯ . But, we have that each pair (e.g. 99 & 101) has a product that is less than 1 0 0 2 . In fact, each pair from the numerator will be one less than the corresponding pair from the denominator: ( a − 1 ) × ( a + 1 ) = a 2 − 1 .
(1/2) denominator is greator than numerator but its value is not zero.
Note that for all 1<m<n, (n-m)(n+m) < n^2, which implies that (n-m)(n+m)/n^2 <1. Letting n = 100, we can pair all terms in the product set by letting m vary from 1 to 99, ( 1 % × 1 9 9 % , 2 % × 1 9 8 % etc). All product pairs are less than 1, and only two terms are left unaccounted for, 100% and 200%, whose product is 2. Clearly the product of all the other pair must be less than 1 since they are all less than 1 individually. So the only question is if the product of the pairs is 0.5 or greater. If even 1 of the product pairs is less than 0.5, then the product of the pairs must also be less than 0.5, and the pair ( 1 % × 1 9 9 % ) easily satisfies this, therefore the product of all terms is less than 1, implying that the floor of the total product is zero.
Using logic, we find that there is a larger number of 'divide by 100's, as there are 200 numbers, than there are multiplying by 100 or more. Therefore the floor of the equation is 0.
The non-floor answer to the problem above is estimated at 7.8865787 x10^-26, which is way less than 1. So floor answer is 0.
There are a lot of great solutions already written, but I'll try to do it using math as simple as possible: . 0 1 ∗ . 0 2 ∗ . 0 3 . . . ∗ 1 . 9 9 ∗ 2 =
( . 0 1 ∗ 2 ) ∗ ( . 0 2 ∗ 1 . 9 9 ) ∗ ( . 0 3 ∗ 1 . 9 8 ) . . . ∗ ( 1 ∗ 1 . 0 1 )
Which is fairly obviously the product of a handful of numbers slightly bigger than one and a lot of numbers between zero and one: a product which is probably close to zero, but if we want to be even more sure, this product also equals
( . 0 1 ∗ 2 ∗ 1 ∗ 1 . 0 1 ) ∗ ( . 0 2 ∗ 1 . 9 9 ∗ . 9 9 ∗ 1 . 0 2 ) ∗ ( . 0 3 ∗ 1 . 9 8 ∗ . 9 8 ∗ 1 . 0 3 ) . . . ∗ ( . 4 9 ∗ 1 . 5 0 ∗ . 5 0 ∗ 1 . 4 9 )
Intuition, common mathematical patterns, or just running some numbers in our head lead to the conclusion that .49 * .50 * 1.49 * 1.50 has the greatest magnitude of these combinations;
. 4 9 ∗ . 5 0 ∗ 1 . 4 9 ∗ 1 . 5 0 ≈ ( 2 1 ) 2 ( 2 3 ) 2 = 1 6 9
In other words, our number is the product of 49 numbers between 0 and 1 6 9 - the floor of which will certainly be 0.
200!/100^200 Greatest integer = 0
1 0 4 0 0 2 0 0 ! has in the denominator 4 0 0 trailling zeroes, and in the numerator less than 1 0 0 trailling zeroes, so 1 0 4 0 0 2 0 0 ! < 1 → its floor function equals 0
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We can rewrite this in the non-Floor form as follows
1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 2 0 0 n = 1 ∏ 9 9 ( 1 0 0 1 0 0 − n ) ( 1 0 0 1 0 0 + n ) = 2 ( 1 0 0 0 0 1 9 9 ) n = 1 ∏ 9 8 ( 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 − n 2 )
which obviously has a value of less than 1 . Hence the Floor is 0 .