Ampere's Law Exercise (Part 2)

A circular wire loop of radius 1 1 lies in the x y xy plane and has its center at the origin. The loop carries 1 1 unit of electric current. Consider an integration path consisting of a circle of radius 1 1 in the x z xz plane with its center at ( x , y , z ) = ( 1 , 0 , 0 ) (x,y,z) = (1,0,0) . Define the following magnetic line integrals over the "left" ( x 1 ) (x \leq 1) and "right" ( x > 1 ) (x > 1) halves of the integration path:

Q L = x 1 B d Q R = x > 1 B d Q_{L} = \int_{x \leq 1} \vec{B} \cdot \vec{d \ell} \\ Q_{R} = \int_{x > 1} \vec{B} \cdot \vec{d \ell}

In the above integrals, B \vec{B} is the vector magnetic flux density produced by the loop at a particular point. Determine the following ratio:

Q R Q L + Q R \frac{Q_R }{Q_L + Q_R}

Details and Assumptions:
1) Magnetic permeability μ 0 = 1 \mu_0 = 1
2) You know ahead of time what the denominator of the ratio is
3) Use the same circulation (clockwise or counter-clockwise) when evaluating both integrals


The answer is 0.179.

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1 solution

Karan Chatrath
Feb 2, 2020

Consider a point on the black circle:

r C 1 = cos θ i ^ + sin θ j ^ \vec{r}_{C1} = \cos{\theta} \hat{i} + \sin{\theta} \hat{j}

An arc length element of this circle is:

d r C 1 = ( sin θ i ^ + cos θ j ^ ) d θ d\vec{r}_{C1} = \left(-\sin{\theta} \hat{i} + \cos{\theta} \hat{j}\right)d\theta

Consider a point on the blue circle circle:

r C 2 = cos ϕ i ^ + sin ϕ j ^ \vec{r}_{C2} = \cos{\phi} \hat{i} + \sin{\phi} \hat{j}

An arc length element of this circle is:

d r C 2 = ( sin ϕ i ^ + cos ϕ j ^ ) d ϕ d\vec{r}_{C2} = \left(-\sin{\phi} \hat{i} + \cos{\phi} \hat{j}\right)d\phi

Let:

r = r C 2 r C 1 \vec{r} = \vec{r}_{C2} - \vec{r}_{C1}

Now, the magnetic field at a point on the blue circle due to an element of the black circle is:

d B = μ o I 4 π ( d r C 1 × r r 3 ) d\vec{B} = \frac{\mu_o I}{4\pi} \left(\frac{d\vec{r}_{C1} \times \vec{r}}{\lvert \vec{r} \rvert ^3}\right)

The elementary dot product of this magnetic field along an arc length element of the blue circle is:

d Q = d B d r C 2 dQ = d\vec{B} \cdot d\vec{r}_{C2}

Now, it is just a matter of substituting expressions and simplifying a bit, to obtain:

d Q = 1 4 π ( cos ( θ ) cos ( ϕ ) + cos ( ϕ ) cos ( θ ) ( 2 cos ( ϕ ) 2 cos ( θ ) 2 cos ( ϕ ) cos ( θ ) + 3 ) 3 / 2 ) d θ d ϕ d Q = f ( θ , ϕ ) d θ d ϕ dQ = \frac{-1}{4\pi} \left(\frac{\cos\left(\mathrm{\theta}\right)-\cos\left(\phi \right)+\cos\left(\phi \right)\,\cos\left(\mathrm{\theta}\right)}{{\left(2\,\cos\left(\phi \right)-2\,\cos\left(\mathrm{\theta}\right)-2\,\cos\left(\phi \right)\,\cos\left(\mathrm{\theta}\right)+3\right)}^{3/2}}\right)d\theta d\phi \implies dQ = f(\theta,\phi) d\theta d\phi

Now, the following quantities:

Q R = π / 2 π / 2 0 2 π f ( θ , ϕ ) d θ d ϕ Q_R = \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \int_{0}^{2\pi} f(\theta,\phi) d\theta d\phi

Q L = π / 2 3 π / 2 0 2 π f ( θ , ϕ ) d θ d ϕ Q_L = \int_{\pi/2}^{3\pi/2} \int_{0}^{2\pi} f(\theta,\phi) d\theta d\phi

From Ampere's Law: Q L + Q R = 1 Q_L + Q_R = 1 and therefore the answer is:

Q R 0.1787 \boxed{Q_R \approx 0.1787}

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