A calculus problem by Bharath Sriraam

Calculus Level 4

Compute the value of the following infinite sum:

r = 1 r 8 r ! \displaystyle \sum _{ r=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { { r }^{ 8 } }{ r! } }

NOTE

e = lim x ( 1 + 1 x ) x e =\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow \infty} \left(1+\dfrac{1}{x}\right)^{x} is the Euler's number.

BONUS: Find r = 1 r n r ! = ? \displaystyle \sum _{ r=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { { r }^{ n } }{ r! } } =?

4140e 9690e 5250e 2016e

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1 solution

First Last
Jul 7, 2017

One could use the following for smaller values than 8:

n = 1 x n n ! + 1 = e x x d d x ( n = 1 x n n ! + 1 ) = n = 1 n x n n ! = x e x \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n!}+1=e^x\quad x\frac{d}{dx}\bigg(\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n!}+1\bigg)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{nx^n}{n!}=xe^x

And continue differentiating indefinitely until a desired power of n in the numerator, but this is tedious. To generalize, the Bell numbers are defined as B n = 1 e k = 0 k n k ! B_n=\frac1{e}\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{k^n}{k!}

We need only B 8 = 4140 B_8=4140 and Wikipedia gives a nice way of calculating them recursively.

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