Let denote a function satisfying the 2 properties below:
where and are real numbers.
It's obvious that a possible solution for is Are there any other possible solutions for
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First, put x=y=0 in the first inequation: f(0)≥f(0)+f(0),f(0)≤0 And in the second one too: f(0)≥0 Eventually, f(0)=0.
Put y=-x in the first one: f(0)≥f(x)+f(-x),f(x)≤-f(-x), and put -x instead of x in the second one: f(-x)≥-x,x≥-f(-x)
So, x≥-f(-x)≥f(x). Since f(x)≥x, f(x)≥x≥-f(-x)≥f(x)
Thus, f(x)=x. The answer is No .