An Alternating Sum

Calculus Level 5

S = n = ( 1 ) n 1 + n 2 = a π e b π e c π 1 , S=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^n}{1+n^2}=\dfrac{a\pi e^{b\pi}}{e^{c\pi}-1},

where a , b , c a,b,c are natural numbers. Find a + b + c a+b+c .

Note: Please avoid using wolfram alpha.

Hint: Think about the Fourier transform of f ( x ) = e a x f(x)=e^{-|ax|} .


The answer is 5.

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1 solution

Discussions for this problem are now closed

Pratik Shastri
Jan 8, 2015

S = n even 1 1 + n 2 n odd 1 1 + n 2 S=\sum_{n \ \text{even}} \dfrac{1}{1+n^2}-\sum_{n \ \text{odd}} \dfrac{1}{1+n^2} Now, n even 1 1 + n 2 = n = 1 1 + ( 2 n ) 2 = 1 4 n = 1 1 / 4 + n 2 \displaystyle\sum_{n \ \text{even}} \dfrac{1}{1+n^2}=\displaystyle\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{1+(2n)^2}=\dfrac{1}{4}\displaystyle\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{1/4+n^2} .

Also, n odd 1 1 + n 2 = n = 1 1 + n 2 n even 1 1 + n 2 = n = 1 1 + n 2 1 4 n = 1 1 / 4 + n 2 \begin{aligned}\sum_{n \ \text{odd}} \dfrac{1}{1+n^2}&=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{1+n^2}-\sum_{n \ \text{even}} \dfrac{1}{1+n^2}\\ &=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{1+n^2}-\dfrac{1}{4}\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{1/4+n^2}\end{aligned}

Hence, S = 1 2 n = 1 1 / 4 + n 2 n = 1 1 + n 2 ( 1 ) S=\dfrac{1}{2}\displaystyle\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{1/4+n^2}-\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{1+n^2} \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (1)

Now, consider f ( x ) = e a x , a > 0 f(x)=e^{-a|x|}, \ a>0 . Let F ( k ) F(k) be the Fourier transform of f f .

F ( k ) = f ( x ) e i k x d x = e a x e i k x d x = 2 a a 2 + k 2 \begin{aligned} \therefore \ F(k)&=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-ikx}\mathrm{d}x\\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-a|x|}e^{-ikx}\mathrm{d}x\\ &=\dfrac{2a}{a^2+k^2}\end{aligned}

Now according to the Poisson summation formula , n = f ( n ) = m = F ( m ) \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}f(n)=\sum_{m=-\infty}^{\infty}F(m)

Therefore, n = e a n = m = 2 a a 2 + ( 2 π m ) 2 \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-a|n|}=\sum_{m=-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{2a}{a^2+(2\pi m)^2}

The LHS is just a geometric series. Summing it, we get

m = 2 a a 2 + ( 2 π m ) 2 = 1 + e a 1 e a m = 1 ( a / 2 π ) 2 + n 2 = 2 π 2 a 1 + e a 1 e a \begin{aligned}\sum_{m=-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{2a}{a^2+(2\pi m)^2}&=\dfrac{1+e^{-a}}{1-e^{-a}}\\ \sum_{m=-\infty}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{(a/2\pi)^2+n^2}&=\dfrac{2\pi^2}{a}\dfrac{1+e^{-a}}{1-e^{-a}}\end{aligned}

Put a = 2 π , π / 2 a=2\pi,\pi/2 and substitute the results into ( 1 ) (1) to obtain S = 2 π e π e 2 π 1 \boxed{S=\dfrac{2\pi e^{\pi}}{e^{2\pi}-1}}

Thanks for posting tis interesting problem! I need more practice on Fourier Analysis.

Steven Zheng - 6 years, 5 months ago

did You Studied This Level of integration from Your Institute , or somewhere Else ? Because These are beyond the scope of JEE Advance . I much impressed from your integration skills @Pratik Shastri .And I guess I'am talking to JEE 2015 under 100 Ranker , Am I correct ?

Karan Shekhawat - 6 years, 5 months ago

Thank you, I learned this from wikipedia. And under 100? No way! Chemistry is a big hurdle for me. Especially inorganic chemistry.

Pratik Shastri - 6 years, 5 months ago

I believe you should not give the hint in the question but anyways I have done this question in other way than yours @Pratik Shastri.

Ronak Agarwal - 6 years, 5 months ago

The hint doesn't give away much, does it? I mean you need to think about using the Poisson summation formula.

Pratik Shastri - 6 years, 5 months ago

If this is the condition of JEE aspirants 2015, then i'm far behind from the scope of IIT :(

Vighnesh Raut - 6 years, 5 months ago

This problem can also be solved by the formula n = 0 1 n + a = φ ( a ) \sum_{n=0}^{∞}\frac{1}{n+a}=-φ(a) where φ φ is the Digamma Function and a a is any complex number.

Souryajit Roy - 6 years, 5 months ago

Well, 2 important series which I learnt sometimes before helped me here, i.e that of c o t h ( x ) coth(x) and t a n h ( x ) tanh(x) .

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 4 months ago

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