An Easy but Interesting Integral

Calculus Level 3

0 ln ( x ) 1 + x 2 d x \large \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln(x)}{1+x^2} dx

Find the value of the integral above to 2 decimal places.

Inspiration .


The answer is 0.00.

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5 solutions

Shourya Pandey
May 6, 2017

Set y = 1 x y = \frac{1}{x} . So

I = 0 l n ( x ) 1 + x 2 d x = 0 l n 1 y 1 + ( 1 y ) 2 1 y 2 d y \displaystyle I= \int_0^{\infty} \frac{ln(x)}{1+x^{2}}dx = \int_{\infty}^0 \frac{ln\frac{1}{y}}{1+(\frac{1}{y})^{2}} \frac{-1}{y^2}dy , which implies that

I = 0 l n ( y ) 1 + y 2 d y = I I = \displaystyle \int_{\infty}^{0} \frac {ln(y)}{1+y^2} dy = - I , because the limits are switched.

Therefore I = 0 \boxed{I=0} .

Raj Rajput
Sep 5, 2015

Thanks for posting solution.
This integral can be solved by 2 methods,
1) Put x = t a n t x = tant .
2) Put x = 1 t x = \frac{1}{t} . . . I want you to try this method too :-)


Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 9 months ago

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yes i will try that one also :) @Akhil Bansal

RAJ RAJPUT - 5 years, 9 months ago

Bahut badiya. Beautiful solution and handwriting sir!

Atharva Brahmecha - 4 years, 1 month ago

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Thank you .... Thanks a lot :) :)

RAJ RAJPUT - 4 years ago

Relevant wiki: Integration Tricks

I = 0 ln x 1 + x 2 d x Using inversions: 0 f ( x ) d x = 0 f ( 1 x ) x 2 d x = 1 2 0 ln x 1 + x 2 + ln 1 x x 2 ( 1 + 1 x 2 ) d x = 1 2 0 ln x 1 + x 2 ln x x 2 + 1 d x = 0 \begin{aligned} I & = \int_0^\infty \frac {\ln x}{1+x^2} dx & \small \color{#3D99F6} \text{Using inversions: }\int_0^\infty f(x) \ dx = \int_0^\infty \frac {f\left(\frac 1x \right)}{x^2} dx \\ & = \frac 12 \int_0^\infty \frac {\ln x}{1+x^2} + \frac {\ln \frac 1x}{x^2 \left(1+\frac 1{x^2}\right)} dx \\ & = \frac 12 \int_0^\infty \frac {\ln x}{1+x^2} - \frac {\ln x}{x^2 + 1} dx \\ & = \boxed{0} \end{aligned}

Brilliant Soln Sir

Swapnil Vatsal - 3 years, 12 months ago
Reynan Henry
Jan 12, 2017

substitue x = tan u , d x = sec 2 u d u , u x=\tan{u},dx=\sec^2{u}du,u is from 0 0 to π 2 \frac{\pi}{2}

0 π 2 ln tan u sec 2 u sec 2 u d u = 0 π 2 ln tan u d u = 0 π 2 ln sin u d u 0 π 2 ln cos u d u = 0 \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\ln{\tan{u}}}{\sec^2{u}}\sec^2{u}du=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln{\tan{u}}du=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln{\sin{u}}du-\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln{\cos{u}}du=0 (notice the graph sin and cos)

Sagar Airen
Sep 5, 2015

put x=tant and then we will get integration of ln of tant from 0 to pi/2 put t=pi/2-p and we will get integral of ln cot p from 0 to pi/2 replace p by 2 and add two integrals we will get integration of ln 1 which is zero

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