It is well known that n → ∞ lim n sin n π = π . But what is the limit A below?
A = n → ∞ lim ( cos n π ) n
Give your answer as ⌊ 1 0 0 0 A ⌋ .
Notation: ⌊ ⋅ ⌋ denotes the floor function .
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The best method
This may seem like a naive question but bare with me since I am in pre calc at school. How did you change the question to exp(n(cos (pi/sqrt(n))-1))?
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As explained in the blue side note x → ∞ lim f ( x ) h ( x ) = e lim n → ∞ h ( x ) ( f ( x ) − 1 , where x = n , f ( n ) = cos cos n π , and h ( n ) = n . Note that exp ( x ) = e x .
This is not very formal, but here we go.
When x → 0 , cos x → ( 1 − 2 x 2 ) , so
n → ∞ lim ( cos n π ) n = n → ∞ lim ( 1 − 2 n π 2 ) n
If p = − π 2 2 n , we have
p → − ∞ lim ( 1 + p 1 ) − 2 p π 2 = e − π 2 = 0 . 0 0 7 1 9 1 . . .
So ⌊ 1 0 0 0 A ⌋ = 7
A = n → ∞ lim ( cos n π ) n = exp ( n → ∞ lim n ( cos n π − 1 ) ) = exp ( n → ∞ lim − 2 n sin 2 2 n π ) = exp ( n → ∞ lim − 2 1 ( 2 n sin 2 n π ) 2 ) = exp ( − 2 π 2 ) ≈ 0 . 0 0 7 1 9 1 8 8 given n → ∞ lim n sin n π = π
Thus
⌊ 1 0 0 0 A ⌋ = 7
Let 1/√(n) =x. Then n=1/(x^2). ln(A) is the limit of ln(cos(πx)) /(x^2) as x tends to zero. This is a 0/0 form. Applying L'Hospital's rule we get ln(A)=-(π^2)/2 or A=exp(-(π^2)/2)=0.00719188
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A = n → ∞ lim cos n n π = exp ( n → ∞ lim n ( cos n π − 1 ) ) = exp ( n → ∞ lim n ( 1 − 2 ! n π 2 + 4 ! n 2 π 4 − ⋯ − 1 ) ) = exp ( n → ∞ lim ( − 2 π 2 + 2 4 n π 4 − 7 2 0 n 2 π 6 + ⋯ ) ) = e − 2 π 2 ≈ 0 . 0 0 7 1 9 2 A 1 ∞ case, the following applies x → ∞ lim f ( x ) h ( x ) = e lim n → ∞ h ( x ) ( f ( x ) − 1 ) By Maclaurin series
Therefore, ⌊ 1 0 0 0 A ⌋ = 7 .
Reference: The 1 ∞ case (2nd method)