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(x+1/x)^2=1 implies x^2+(1/x)^2=-1 ;so there does exist a complex number that satisfy your conditions. You DID NOT rule the complex value in your question.
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While I did understand it as real x because of x > 0 (which is undefined for complex numbers), I agree that it should be clarified.
Please notice that in the question I have mentioned x > 0 . If you have more doubts, feel free to clarify them. :)
how? please explain
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for any x > 0 we have ( x + x 1 ) / 2 ≥ ( x × x 1 ) ⇒ ( x + x 1 ) ≥ 2 .
Our question sates that x > 0 and ( x + x 1 ) = 1 . Which is impossible.
x + x 1 = 1 ⟶ x 2 − x + 1 = 0 , which has imaginary roots. Therefore x doesn't fit the condition.
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For any x > 0 we have 2 ( x + x 1 ) ≥ ( x × x 1 ) i.e A M ≥ G M . Which means that ( x + x 1 ) ≥ 2 .
But in the question we have x > 0 AND ( x + x 1 ) = 1 , which is impossible. Hence none of the answers are correct.