Angle between functions

Calculus Level 4

Let there be functions f : D R R f: D \subseteq \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} and g : H R R g: H \subseteq \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} such that there exists f f' and g g' at least at x 0 x_{0} . Assume f ( x 0 ) = g ( x 0 ) f(x_{0}) = g(x_{0}) . Exactly at the point ( x 0 , f ( x 0 ) ) \left ( x_{0}, f(x_{0}) \right ) define the angle between the graphs of f f and g g to be the angle between the tangent vectors to the graphs at that point. Then suppose f ( x ) = ln ( x ) f(x) = \ln(x) and g ( x ) = x 2 x g(x) = x^{2} - x . What is the angle between f f and g g in degrees?


The answer is 0.

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1 solution

For any function h h such that h h' exists at x 0 x_{0} , the tangent vector to the graph at the point ( x 0 , h ( x 0 ) ) \left ( x_{0}, h(x_{0}) \right ) may be found in this way:

h ( x 0 ) = h 1 h 2 v h , x 0 = ( h 1 , h 2 ) = h 2 ( h ( x 0 ) , 1 ) h'(x_{0}) = \frac{h_{1}}{h_{2}} \;\;\; \Rightarrow \overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{h, x_{0}} = \left ( h_{1}, h_{2} \right ) = h_{2} \left ( h'(x_{0}), 1 \right )

where v h , x 0 \overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{h, x_{0}} is the tangent vector. Find the unitary vector in the same direction as follows:

u h , x 0 = v h , x 0 v h , x 0 = ( h ( x 0 ) , 1 ) h ( x 0 ) 2 + 1 \overrightarrow{\mathrm{u}}_{h, x_{0}} = \frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{h, x_{0}}}{\left \| \overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}_{h, x_{0}} \right \|} = \frac{\left ( h'(x_{0}), 1 \right )}{\sqrt{h'(x_{0})^{2} + 1}}

This is valid both for f f and g g . The inner product between u f , x 0 \overrightarrow{\mathrm{u}}_{f, x_{0}} and u g , x 0 \overrightarrow{\mathrm{u}}_{g, x_{0}} will give us, of course, the cosine of the angle we're looking for:

f ( x 0 ) g ( x 0 ) + 1 ( f ( x 0 ) g ( x 0 ) ) 2 + ( f ( x 0 ) ) 2 + ( g ( x 0 ) ) 2 + 1 = cos f , g x 0 \frac{f'(x_{0})g'(x_{0})+1}{\sqrt{\left ( f'(x_{0})g'(x_{0}) \right )^{2} + \left ( f'(x_{0}) \right )^{2} + \left ( g'(x_{0}) \right )^{2} + 1}} = \cos \left \langle f, g \right \rangle_{x_{0}}

Now, if we let f ( x ) = ln ( x ) f(x) = \ln(x) and g ( x ) = x 2 x g(x) = x^{2} - x , we have x 0 = 1 x_{0} = 1 . All we need are the derivatives of those functions evaluated at x = 1 x = 1 , then. It is easy to show that both of these values are 1. Then:

cos ln ( x ) , x 2 x 1 = 1 \cos \left \langle \ln(x), x^{2} - x \right \rangle_{1} = 1

Therefore, ln ( x ) , x 2 x 1 = 0 \left \langle \ln(x), x^{2} - x \right \rangle_{1} = 0 .

A bit drawn out for the given functions. Mere graphical analysis was enough in this case. But the generalisation was really quite intriguing. Maybe the functions given currently were too easy.

Anirudh Chandramouli - 4 years, 3 months ago

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I only proposed the problem so that I could show the generalisation, hehe.

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 3 months ago

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Perfectly done then. For the good of all I request you to continue in your endeavour of sharing knowledge.

Anirudh Chandramouli - 4 years, 3 months ago

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